Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client with left-sided heart failure. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is worsening?

• A. Clear lung sounds
• B. Increased peripheral pulses
• C. Bibasilar crackles
• D. Improved activity tolerance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bibasilar crackles are abnormal lung sounds that indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a sign that left-sided heart failure is worsening. This finding suggests that the client's condition is deteriorating and requires prompt intervention to prevent further complications. Clear lung sounds (Choice A) are normal and would not indicate worsening heart failure. Increased peripheral pulses (Choice B) may be seen in conditions like anxiety or exercise, but not specifically in worsening left-sided heart failure. Improved activity tolerance (Choice D) would be a positive sign, not an indicator of worsening heart failure.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Weight loss
• B. Insomnia
• C. Heat intolerance
• D. Dry skin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Heat intolerance. Heat intolerance is a sign of levothyroxine toxicity and requires immediate attention. Weight loss may actually be an expected outcome of levothyroxine therapy as it can help regulate metabolism in hypothyroidism. Insomnia can occur as a side effect of levothyroxine but is not as concerning as heat intolerance. Dry skin is a common symptom of hypothyroidism and may improve with levothyroxine therapy, so it is not a priority finding to report to the provider.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) with a spacer. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce to ensure correct use?

• A. Inhale deeply and slowly after activating the MDI.
• B. Hold the breath for 5 seconds after inhaling the medication.
• C. Rinse the mouth immediately after using the MDI.
• D. Exhale fully before placing the mouthpiece in the mouth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Inhaling deeply and slowly after activating the MDI is the correct instruction to ensure effective delivery of the medication to the lungs. This technique helps the medication reach the lower airways where it can be most beneficial in managing COPD symptoms. Inhaling too quickly or not deeply enough may result in improper drug delivery and reduce the effectiveness of the treatment. Holding the breath for 5 seconds after inhaling the medication (Choice B) may not be necessary and could cause discomfort without additional benefits. Rinsing the mouth immediately after using the MDI (Choice C) is not necessary unless specified by the healthcare provider. Exhaling fully before placing the mouthpiece in the mouth (Choice D) is not ideal as it may result in inadequate medication delivery to the lungs.

4. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor which laboratory test to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation, the nurse should assess the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) levels. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client's anticoagulation levels are within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it reflects the level of fibrinogen in the blood, which is involved in the clotting process.

5. A client in the emergency department is bleeding profusely from a gunshot wound to the abdomen. In what position should the nurse immediately place the client to promote maintenance of the client's blood pressure above a systolic pressure of 90 mm Hg?

• A. Place the client in a 45-degree Trendelenburg position to promote cerebral blood flow.
• B. Turn the client prone to apply pressure on the abdominal wound to help staunch the bleeding.
• C. Maintain the client in a supine position to reduce diaphragmatic pressure and visualize the wound.
• D. Put the client on the right side to apply pressure to the liver and spleen to stop hemorrhaging.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with profuse bleeding from a gunshot wound to the abdomen, maintaining the client in a supine position is essential to manage blood pressure. This position helps in reducing diaphragmatic pressure and allows for proper visualization of the wound, aiding in prompt assessment and intervention to control the bleeding and stabilize the client's condition. Placing the client in a 45-degree Trendelenburg position (Choice A) could worsen the bleeding by increasing intrathoracic pressure and venous return, potentially leading to further hemorrhage. Turning the client prone (Choice B) may not be feasible in this situation and can delay essential interventions. Placing the client on the right side (Choice D) does not address the immediate need to manage the bleeding and stabilize the client's condition.

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