ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Assessment A
1. A client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is prescribed simvastatin (Zocor). The nurse should teach the client about which potential side effect?
- A. Muscle pain
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Drowsiness
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Muscle pain is a common side effect of statins like simvastatin and can indicate a serious condition called rhabdomyolysis. Rhabdomyolysis is a severe condition where muscle fibers break down rapidly, releasing myoglobin into the bloodstream, which can lead to kidney damage. Therefore, it's important for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect and to promptly report any muscle pain to the healthcare provider. Dry mouth, drowsiness, and diarrhea are not commonly associated with simvastatin use and are less concerning compared to the risk of rhabdomyolysis.
2. A 3-year-old boy is found to be in cardiopulmonary arrest. As you begin one-rescuer CPR, your partner prepares the AED. What is the appropriate compression to ventilation ratio for this child?
- A. 3:01
- B. 30:2
- C. 15:2
- D. 5:1
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct compression to ventilation ratio for a single rescuer performing CPR on a child is 30:2. This ratio ensures adequate circulation and oxygenation during CPR. 30 compressions help maintain blood flow, while 2 rescue breaths provide oxygenation. Choice A (3:01) is incorrect as it does not follow the standard CPR guidelines for children. Choice C (15:2) is incorrect as it is the ratio used for adult CPR. Choice D (5:1) is incorrect as it is not the recommended ratio for child CPR.
3. A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has a prescription for zolpidem at bedtime to promote sleep. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Ecchymosis
- B. Decreased urine output
- C. Increased blood pressure
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dizziness. Zolpidem is known to cause dizziness, especially in older adults. This adverse effect can increase the risk of falls and injuries in the elderly population. Monitoring for dizziness is crucial to ensure patient safety. Choice A, Ecchymosis, is the development of bruising and is not a common adverse effect of zolpidem. Choices B and C, Decreased urine output and Increased blood pressure, are not typically associated with zolpidem use. Therefore, they are incorrect choices in this scenario.
4. If a nurse accepts the role of charge nurse on the evening shift, what effect will unionization have on the nurse's new position?
- A. The nurse can file a grievance that will be arbitrated automatically by the Union
- B. Charge nurse is part of the management team, so Union participation would be a conflict of interest
- C. The nurse is not eligible for collective bargaining activities dealing with unfair labor practices
- D. The nurse can be represented by the union because charge nurses are not considered part of the management team
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choosing answer B is correct because charge nurses are typically considered part of the management team. As part of the management team, the charge nurse has decision-making responsibilities that align with the interests of the organization. Therefore, participating in a union would create a conflict of interest. Options A, C, and D are incorrect. Option A is incorrect because union arbitration is not typically applicable to management positions. Option C is incorrect because charge nurses, as part of the management team, would not be eligible for collective bargaining activities like frontline staff. Option D is incorrect because charge nurses, due to their managerial responsibilities, are generally not represented by unions for collective bargaining purposes.
5. A 60-year-old man presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
- B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
- C. Diabetes insipidus
- D. Hyperthyroidism
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The presentation of a 60-year-old man with fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, hyperglycemia, and ketonuria strongly suggests type 1 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes typically presents with acute symptoms due to absolute insulin deficiency, leading to hyperglycemia and ketonuria. Conversely, type 2 diabetes often presents more insidiously and is associated with relative insulin deficiency and insulin resistance. Diabetes insipidus, a condition characterized by excessive thirst and excretion of large amounts of dilute urine, is due to problems with antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and is not associated with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Hyperthyroidism, while also presenting with symptoms like fatigue, does not typically manifest with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Therefore, based on the clinical presentation and laboratory findings, the most likely diagnosis in this case is type 1 diabetes mellitus.
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