HESI RN
Leadership and Management HESI
1. Nurse Joey is assigned to care for a postoperative male client who has diabetes mellitus. During the assessment interview, the client reports that he's impotent and says he's concerned about its effect on his marriage. In planning this client's care, the most appropriate intervention would be to:
- A. Encourage the client to ask questions about personal sexuality.
- B. Provide time for privacy.
- C. Provide support for the spouse or significant other.
- D. Suggest referral to a sex counselor or other appropriate professional.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a postoperative male client with diabetes mellitus who reports impotence and concerns about its impact on his marriage is to suggest referral to a sex counselor or other appropriate professional. Impotence can have significant emotional and relational effects, and a sex counselor is specifically trained to address such concerns. Encouraging the client to ask questions about personal sexuality (Choice A) may not provide the specialized support needed in this situation. Providing time for privacy (Choice B) is important but may not directly address the client's concerns about impotence. Providing support for the spouse or significant other (Choice C) is valuable but may not be as effective as seeking professional help to address the client's specific issue of impotence.
2. The client has undergone a thyroidectomy. Which of the following symptoms would indicate a potential complication?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hyperreflexia
- D. Hypocalcemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hypocalcemia is a potential complication of thyroidectomy as it may occur if the parathyroid glands, responsible for calcium regulation, are inadvertently removed or damaged during the procedure. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is not typically associated with thyroidectomy complications. Tachycardia (fast heart rate) is more commonly seen in hyperthyroidism. Hyperreflexia (exaggerated reflex responses) is not a typical complication of thyroidectomy.
3. A client with type 1 DM is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The nurse should prioritize which action?
- A. Administering intravenous fluids.
- B. Administering oral glucose.
- C. Administering a fever-reducing medication.
- D. Administering oxygen therapy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering intravenous fluids is the priority in treating DKA for several reasons. DKA is characterized by severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances due to hyperglycemia. IV fluids help to correct dehydration, restore electrolyte balance, and decrease blood glucose levels. Administering oral glucose (Choice B) would be contraindicated in DKA as the primary issue is high blood glucose levels. Administering a fever-reducing medication (Choice C) is not the priority in managing DKA. Administering oxygen therapy (Choice D) may be necessary in some cases, but correcting dehydration and electrolyte imbalances take precedence in the management of DKA.
4. As a nurse manager rounds on the unit, he speaks with staff, patients, and family members. Later in the day, he is in a meeting with administration. During the conversations, he considers how these interactions impact the care provided to patients on the unit. Which of the following interpersonal activities best describes this manager’s actions?
- A. Networking
- B. Employee development
- C. Coaching
- D. Monitoring
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Networking.' Networking involves building relationships and connecting with staff, patients, and family members to establish a supportive network. In this scenario, the nurse manager is engaging in networking by interacting with various individuals to understand how these interactions influence patient care. 'Employee development' involves activities aimed at enhancing employees' skills and knowledge. 'Coaching' focuses on guiding individuals to improve performance, while 'Monitoring' involves overseeing and supervising activities to ensure compliance and quality.
5. Which of these signs suggests that a male client with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion is experiencing complications?
- A. Tetanic contractions
- B. Neck vein distention
- C. Weight loss
- D. Polyuria
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Neck vein distention is a sign of fluid overload, a complication of SIADH due to water retention. Tetanic contractions (Choice A) are not typically associated with SIADH. Weight loss (Choice C) is not a common complication of SIADH, as patients often experience fluid retention and weight gain. Polyuria (Choice D) is also not a typical sign of SIADH, as the condition is characterized by water retention and decreased urine output.
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