nurse joey is assigned to care for a postoperative male client who has diabetes mellitus during the assessment interview the client reports that hes i
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Leadership and Management HESI

1. Nurse Joey is assigned to care for a postoperative male client who has diabetes mellitus. During the assessment interview, the client reports that he's impotent and says he's concerned about its effect on his marriage. In planning this client's care, the most appropriate intervention would be to:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a postoperative male client with diabetes mellitus who reports impotence and concerns about its impact on his marriage is to suggest referral to a sex counselor or other appropriate professional. Impotence can have significant emotional and relational effects, and a sex counselor is specifically trained to address such concerns. Encouraging the client to ask questions about personal sexuality (Choice A) may not provide the specialized support needed in this situation. Providing time for privacy (Choice B) is important but may not directly address the client's concerns about impotence. Providing support for the spouse or significant other (Choice C) is valuable but may not be as effective as seeking professional help to address the client's specific issue of impotence.

2. The client with type 2 DM is being instructed by the nurse about the importance of controlling blood glucose levels. The nurse should emphasize that uncontrolled blood glucose can lead to:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Uncontrolled blood glucose levels are associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular complications, such as heart disease and stroke. High blood glucose levels can damage blood vessels over time, leading to atherosclerosis, which can increase the likelihood of heart disease and stroke. Improved wound healing (choice B) is not a consequence of uncontrolled blood glucose levels; in fact, high blood sugar levels can impair wound healing. Reduced need for medication (choice C) is inaccurate because uncontrolled blood glucose usually necessitates more medication to manage the condition. Decreased risk of infection (choice D) is also misleading as high blood glucose levels can compromise the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections.

3. A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propranolol. The nurse explains that this medication is used to:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Propranolol is a beta-blocker that works by blocking the effects of adrenaline, which helps to reduce symptoms such as tachycardia (fast heart rate) and anxiety in individuals with hyperthyroidism. Choices A and B are incorrect because propranolol does not affect thyroid hormone production; it only addresses symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because propranolol does not prevent weight loss associated with hyperthyroidism.

4. The client with DM is being taught by the nurse about the importance of monitoring blood glucose levels. The nurse should instruct the client to:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check blood glucose before meals and at bedtime. Monitoring blood glucose levels before meals allows the client to adjust their insulin or oral antidiabetic medications based on their current levels. Checking at bedtime helps in ensuring blood glucose levels are at a safe range throughout the night. Option A is incorrect because blood glucose should be monitored regularly as part of diabetes management, not just when feeling unwell. Option C is incorrect because checking only after meals does not provide a complete picture of blood glucose control throughout the day. Option D is incorrect as checking only in the morning does not cover the full spectrum of blood glucose variations that can occur during the day.

5. A client with DM visits the health care clinic. The client's diabetes has been well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause hyperglycemia by increasing glucose production in the liver. Atenolol (Choice A) is a beta-blocker that typically does not affect blood glucose levels significantly. Phenelzine (Choice C) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used for depression and does not directly impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Choice D) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not contribute to hyperglycemia.

Similar Questions

A client with DM is scheduled for surgery. The nurse should plan to:
An agitated, confused female client arrives in the emergency department. Her history includes type 1 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and angina pectoris. Assessment reveals pallor, diaphoresis, headache, and intense hunger. A stat blood glucose sample measures 42 mg/dl, and the client is treated for an acute hypoglycemic reaction. After recovery, the nurse teaches the client to treat hypoglycemia by ingesting:
A client with type 1 DM is experiencing signs of hypoglycemia. The nurse should expect which of the following symptoms?
Which of the following is an example of nonmaleficence in nursing practice?
A client with hypothyroidism is prescribed levothyroxine. The nurse should teach the client to take this medication:

Access More Features

HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses