Nursing Elites

1. Nurse Joey is assigned to care for a postoperative male client who has diabetes mellitus. During the assessment interview, the client reports that he's impotent and says he's concerned about its effect on his marriage. In planning this client's care, the most appropriate intervention would be to:

• A. Encourage the client to ask questions about personal sexuality.
• B. Provide time for privacy.
• C. Provide support for the spouse or significant other.
• D. Suggest referral to a sex counselor or other appropriate professional.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a postoperative male client with diabetes mellitus who reports impotence and concerns about its impact on his marriage is to suggest referral to a sex counselor or other appropriate professional. Impotence can have significant emotional and relational effects, and a sex counselor is specifically trained to address such concerns. Encouraging the client to ask questions about personal sexuality (Choice A) may not provide the specialized support needed in this situation. Providing time for privacy (Choice B) is important but may not directly address the client's concerns about impotence. Providing support for the spouse or significant other (Choice C) is valuable but may not be as effective as seeking professional help to address the client's specific issue of impotence.

2. A client with hypothyroidism is receiving levothyroxine therapy. The healthcare provider should monitor for which of the following signs of medication overdose?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Weight gain
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Cold intolerance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachycardia. Tachycardia is a sign of levothyroxine overdose, indicating that the dose may need to be adjusted. Bradycardia (Choice A) is a sign of hypothyroidism, not an overdose of levothyroxine. Weight gain (Choice B) and cold intolerance (Choice D) are also symptoms of hypothyroidism, not medication overdose.

3. A client with type 1 DM is taught to take NPH and regular insulin every morning. The nurse should provide which instructions to the client?

• A. Take the NPH insulin first, then the regular insulin.
• B. Take the regular insulin first, then the NPH insulin.
• C. It does not matter which insulin is drawn up first.
• D. Contact the healthcare provider if the order for insulin is unclear.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to take the regular insulin first, then the NPH insulin. Regular insulin should be drawn up before NPH insulin to prevent contamination of the regular insulin vial with the longer-acting insulin. Choice A is incorrect as it suggests taking the NPH insulin first, which is not the recommended practice. Choice C is incorrect because the order of drawing up insulin does matter to prevent contamination. Choice D is not the most appropriate action in this scenario, as the nurse should provide clear instructions to the client based on best practices.

4. Why is glucose an important molecule in a cell?

• A. Extraction of energy
• B. Synthesis of protein
• C. Building of genetic material
• D. Formation of cell membranes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Glucose is a crucial molecule in cells because it serves as the primary source of energy through cellular respiration. Choice B, the synthesis of protein, is incorrect because proteins are typically synthesized from amino acids, not glucose. Choice C, the building of genetic material, is incorrect because genetic material, such as DNA and RNA, is not directly built from glucose. Choice D, the formation of cell membranes, is also incorrect as cell membranes are primarily composed of lipids and proteins, not glucose.

5. A client with DM visits the health care clinic. The client's diabetes has been well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?

• A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• B. Prednisone (Deltasone)
• C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
• D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause hyperglycemia by increasing glucose production in the liver. Atenolol (Choice A) is a beta-blocker that typically does not affect blood glucose levels significantly. Phenelzine (Choice C) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used for depression and does not directly impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Choice D) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not contribute to hyperglycemia.

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