Nursing Elites

1. For the first 72 hours after thyroidectomy surgery, nurse Jamie would assess the female client for Chvostek's sign and Trousseau's sign because they indicate which of the following?

• A. Hypocalcemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chvostek's and Trousseau's signs are clinical manifestations that suggest hypocalcemia, a common complication following thyroidectomy. Chvostek's sign is elicited by tapping the facial nerve, resulting in facial muscle contraction, while Trousseau's sign is provoked by inflating a blood pressure cuff, leading to carpal spasm. Both signs are indicative of low calcium levels in the blood. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not correlate with the signs specifically associated with hypocalcemia.

2. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?

• A. Initiate insulin therapy.
• B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
• C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
• D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.

3. A client newly diagnosed with DM asks a nurse why it is necessary to monitor blood glucose levels so often. The nurse's best response would be:

• A. It helps to adjust insulin doses more precisely.
• B. It helps to prevent complications of diabetes.
• C. It helps to identify the best diet for you.
• D. It helps to reduce the need for medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring blood glucose levels frequently is crucial for preventing complications in diabetes. By keeping a close eye on blood glucose levels, healthcare providers can intervene in a timely manner if levels are out of range, thus reducing the risk of long-term complications such as nerve damage, kidney disease, and vision problems. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while monitoring blood glucose levels may indirectly contribute to adjusting insulin doses, identifying the best diet, and reducing the need for medications, the primary purpose is to prevent complications through timely interventions.

4. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:

• A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
• B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
• C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
• D. Felodipine (Plendil)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.

5. What is the mechanism of action of corticotropin (Acthar) when prescribed as replacement therapy for a male client who has undergone surgical removal of a pituitary tumor?

• A. It decreases cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) production and affects the metabolic rate of target organs.
• B. It interacts with plasma membrane receptors to inhibit enzymatic actions.
• C. It interacts with plasma membrane receptors to produce enzymatic actions that affect protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism.
• D. It regulates the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corticotropin (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol and other hormones, affecting protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism. Choice A is incorrect because corticotropin does not decrease cAMP production; instead, it stimulates enzymatic actions. Choice B is incorrect because corticotropin does not inhibit enzymatic actions but rather produces enzymatic actions. Choice D is incorrect because corticotropin's mechanism of action does not involve regulating the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.

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