Nursing Elites

1. Effective leaders must communicate a vision for the future. Which of the following is the best method for communicating a vision for the future?

• A. Involve others in creating the vision and connect daily work tasks to the vision.
• B. Encourage staff nurses to openly discuss practice and possible improvements.
• C. Critically analyze and discuss advances in practice with other nurses on staff.
• D. Actively listen to the recommendations of others.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best method for communicating a vision for the future is to involve others in creating the vision and connect daily work tasks to the vision. This approach fosters ownership and commitment among team members, as they feel part of the vision-building process and understand how their daily tasks contribute to achieving that vision. Choice B, encouraging staff nurses to openly discuss practice and possible improvements, is important for fostering communication but doesn't directly address creating and communicating a vision. Choice C, critically analyzing and discussing advances in practice with other nurses, focuses on professional development and knowledge sharing rather than specifically communicating a future vision. Choice D, actively listening to recommendations, is valuable for gathering input but may not be sufficient on its own for effectively communicating a future vision.

2. A healthcare professional is experiencing moral distress due to an ethical dilemma. Which of the following best describes the healthcare professional’s response to this situation?

• A. The healthcare professional is experiencing moral distress because the ethical dilemma is causing a conflict between the healthcare professional’s personal values and professional responsibilities.
• B. The healthcare professional is experiencing moral distress because the ethical dilemma is causing a conflict between the healthcare professional’s obligations to the patient and the healthcare team.
• C. The healthcare professional is experiencing moral distress because the ethical dilemma is causing a conflict between the healthcare professional’s personal beliefs and the expectations of the healthcare organization.
• D. The healthcare professional is experiencing moral distress because the ethical dilemma is causing a conflict between the healthcare professional’s professional judgment and the wishes of the patient’s family.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Moral distress occurs when a healthcare professional experiences a conflict between personal values and professional responsibilities, leading to emotional and ethical challenges. Choice B is incorrect because moral distress is primarily related to personal values and professional responsibilities, not just obligations to the patient and healthcare team. Choice C is incorrect because moral distress is more about personal values and professional responsibilities, rather than organizational expectations. Choice D is incorrect because moral distress is focused on personal values and professional responsibilities, not just conflicts with the wishes of the patient’s family.

3. A client with DM visits the health care clinic. The client's diabetes has been well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?

• A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• B. Prednisone (Deltasone)
• C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
• D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause hyperglycemia by increasing glucose production in the liver. Atenolol (Choice A) is a beta-blocker that typically does not affect blood glucose levels significantly. Phenelzine (Choice C) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used for depression and does not directly impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Choice D) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not contribute to hyperglycemia.

4. The client with type 2 DM is receiving dietary instructions from the nurse regarding the prescribed diabetic diet. The nurse determines that the client understands the instructions if the client states that:

• A. I need to skip meals if my blood glucose level is elevated.
• B. I need to eat a small meal or snack every 2 to 3 hours.
• C. I need to avoid using concentrated sweets in my diet.
• D. I need to eat a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'I need to avoid using concentrated sweets in my diet.' Clients with type 2 diabetes should avoid concentrated sweets as they can cause rapid spikes in blood glucose levels, which can be detrimental to their health. Option A is incorrect because skipping meals can lead to fluctuations in blood glucose levels. Option B is incorrect as it does not address the specific issue of avoiding concentrated sweets. Option D is incorrect because a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet is not typically recommended as the primary approach for managing type 2 diabetes.

5. A client with Addison's disease is receiving corticosteroid therapy. The nurse should monitor for which of the following potential side effects?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Hyperglycemia. Corticosteroid therapy can lead to hyperglycemia by increasing blood glucose levels. Corticosteroids can induce insulin resistance, decrease glucose uptake by tissues, and promote gluconeogenesis. While corticosteroid therapy can cause hypoglycemia in some cases, it is more commonly associated with hyperglycemia. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is more commonly associated with conditions like renal failure or certain medications. Hyponatremia (choice D) is typically not a common side effect of corticosteroid therapy unless there are other contributing factors present.

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