Nursing Elites

1. Cycloserine (Seromycin) is added to the medication regimen for a client with tuberculosis. Which of the following would the nurse include in the client-teaching plan regarding this medication?

• A. To take the medication after meals
• B. To return to the clinic weekly for serum drug-level testing
• C. To call the health care provider (HCP) if a skin rash occurs
• D. To restrict alcohol intake with this medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cycloserine requires weekly serum drug level determinations to monitor for neurotoxicity. The medication must be taken after meals, and the client should avoid alcohol. Additionally, the client should report any signs of skin rash or central nervous system toxicity to the healthcare provider.

2. A client is receiving vancomycin (Vancocin). Which of the following is the most important action for the nurse to take?

• A. Monitor the client for signs of nephrotoxicity.
• B. Monitor the client for signs of ototoxicity.
• C. Ensure adequate hydration.
• D. Administer the medication with food.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important action for the nurse to take when a client is receiving vancomycin is to monitor for signs of nephrotoxicity. Vancomycin can cause kidney damage, so monitoring kidney function and signs of nephrotoxicity are crucial to prevent harm. While monitoring for ototoxicity and ensuring adequate hydration are important nursing actions, they are not as critical as preventing nephrotoxicity when administering vancomycin.

3. A client who is taking hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL, HCTZ) has been started on triamterene (Dyrenium) as well. The client asks the nurse why both medications are required. The nurse formulates a response, based on the understanding that:

• A. Both are weak potassium-losing diuretics.
• B. The combination of these medications prevents renal toxicity.
• C. Hydrochlorothiazide is less expensive, so using a combination of diuretics is cost-effective.
• D. Triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic, whereas hydrochlorothiazide is a potassium-losing diuretic.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The combination of triamterene and hydrochlorothiazide is used because triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which helps retain potassium, while hydrochlorothiazide is a potassium-losing diuretic, which promotes potassium excretion. This combination helps balance potassium levels in the body, preventing imbalances that can occur when using potassium-losing diuretics alone.

4. Prednisone is prescribed for a client with diabetes mellitus who is taking Humulin neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin daily. Which of the following prescription changes does the nurse anticipate during therapy with prednisone?

• A. An additional dose of prednisone daily
• B. A decreased amount of daily Humulin NPH insulin
• C. An increased amount of daily Humulin NPH insulin
• D. The addition of an oral hypoglycemic medication daily

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When prednisone is prescribed for a client with diabetes mellitus who is taking Humulin NPH insulin daily, the nurse should anticipate an increased amount of daily Humulin NPH insulin. Prednisone, a glucocorticoid, can elevate blood glucose levels, requiring an increase in insulin dosage to maintain optimal blood sugar control.

5. A client is taking Humulin NPH insulin daily every morning. The nurse reinforces instructions for the client and tells the client that the most likely time for a hypoglycemic reaction to occur is:

• A. 2 to 4 hours after administration
• B. 4 to 12 hours after administration
• C. 16 to 18 hours after administration
• D. 18 to 24 hours after administration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Humulin NPH is an intermediate-acting insulin with a peak action time of 4 to 12 hours after administration. During this period, the risk of hypoglycemic reactions is highest. It is important for the client to be aware of this timing to prevent, recognize, and manage hypoglycemia effectively.

Similar Questions