HESI RN
Reproductive System Exam Questions
1. At 34-40 weeks of pregnancy, the breast changes include:
- A. Nipples become prominent and mobile.
- B. Colostrum can be expressed.
- C. Breasts become tender.
- D. Montgomery's tubercles are prominent.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During the 34-40 weeks of pregnancy, Montgomery's tubercles become prominent. These are sebaceous glands on the areola, not the nipples. Choice A is incorrect as it describes the changes in nipples, not Montgomery's tubercles. Choice B is incorrect as colostrum production usually starts around the 16th week. Choice C is incorrect as breast tenderness is more common in early pregnancy due to hormonal changes.
2. Which of the following is not a barrier method of birth control?
- A. Vaults
- B. Diaphragms
- C. Sterilization
- D. Cervical caps
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Sterilization. Sterilization is a permanent form of birth control that involves surgical procedures to prevent pregnancy by blocking the fallopian tubes or vas deferens. Barrier methods physically prevent sperm from reaching the egg, such as vaults, diaphragms, and cervical caps. These devices create a barrier to sperm, unlike sterilization. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are all considered barrier methods of birth control.
3. What does Informed Consent mean?
- A. A patient has the right to know what a procedure involves before it is performed.
- B. Forcing all patients scheduled for surgery to sign a consent form.
- C. Telling the patient to sign the consent form without explanation.
- D. Allowing patients to undergo procedures without their consent.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Informed Consent means that a patient has the right to be informed about what a procedure involves before it is performed. Choice B is incorrect because consent should not be forced, and patients should have the opportunity to understand what they are agreeing to. Choice C is incorrect as it goes against the essence of informed consent, which requires explanation. Choice D is incorrect as it contradicts the fundamental principle of requiring patient consent before procedures.
4. Which structure maintains the uterus in an anteverted and anteflexed position?
- A. Round ligaments
- B. Broad ligaments
- C. Cardinal ligaments
- D. Pubocervical ligaments
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the Round ligaments. The round ligaments are responsible for maintaining the uterus in an anteverted and anteflexed position. These ligaments attach from the sides of the uterus and extend through the inguinal canal to the labia majora. The other choices, Broad ligaments, Cardinal ligaments, and Pubocervical ligaments, have different functions and attachments within the pelvis. Broad ligaments are a double layer of peritoneum that encloses the uterus and supports the uterine tubes. Cardinal ligaments provide support to the cervix and upper vagina. Pubocervical ligaments support the cervix and bladder.
5. What is the most common cause of abortion in Zambia?
- A. Malaria.
- B. Tuberculosis.
- C. HIV.
- D. Ascariasis.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Malaria. Malaria is a prevalent cause of abortion in Zambia due to its impact on maternal health. Malaria infection during pregnancy can lead to severe complications, including miscarriage. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while Tuberculosis, HIV, and Ascariasis are significant health issues, they are not the commonest cause of abortion in Zambia as Malaria.
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