HESI RN
Reproductive System Exam Questions
1. At 34-40 weeks of pregnancy, the breast changes include:
- A. Nipples become prominent and mobile.
- B. Colostrum can be expressed.
- C. Breasts become tender.
- D. Montgomery's tubercles are prominent.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During the 34-40 weeks of pregnancy, Montgomery's tubercles become prominent. These are sebaceous glands on the areola, not the nipples. Choice A is incorrect as it describes the changes in nipples, not Montgomery's tubercles. Choice B is incorrect as colostrum production usually starts around the 16th week. Choice C is incorrect as breast tenderness is more common in early pregnancy due to hormonal changes.
2. What is Dinoprostone commonly used for?
- A. Cervical priming.
- B. Pain management during labor.
- C. Management of pre-term labor.
- D. Management of post-partum hemorrhage.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dinoprostone is commonly used for the management of pre-term labor. While it can be used for cervical priming, its primary indication is for pre-term labor. Choice A is partially correct but not the most common use of Dinoprostone. Choices B and D are incorrect as Dinoprostone is not primarily used for pain management during labor or for the management of post-partum hemorrhage.
3. What is the estimated percentage of deaths due to unsafe abortions from 591 maternal deaths per 100,000 live births?
- A. 0.1
- B. 0.2
- C. 0.3
- D. 0.4
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To calculate the estimated percentage of deaths due to unsafe abortions, you divide the number of deaths due to unsafe abortions by the total number of maternal deaths and then multiply by 100 to get the percentage. In this case, with 591 maternal deaths and 40% estimated to be due to unsafe abortions, the calculation is (591 * 0.4) / 100, which equals 2.36. Therefore, the estimated percentage of deaths due to unsafe abortions from 591 maternal deaths per 100,000 live births is 0.4 or 40%. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect percentages that do not reflect the provided information.
4. Which of the following is a function of the placenta?
- A. The placenta secretes insulin.
- B. The placenta facilitates the exchange of gases and nutrients between mother and fetus.
- C. The placenta provides immunological protection to the fetus.
- D. The placenta stores fat-soluble vitamins for the fetus.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The placenta serves as a crucial organ during pregnancy, facilitating the exchange of gases (oxygen and carbon dioxide) and nutrients (such as glucose and amino acids) between the mother and the developing fetus. This exchange is vital for the fetus's growth and development. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. The placenta does not secrete insulin; insulin is produced by the pancreas. While the placenta provides some immune support to the fetus, its main role is not immunological protection. Additionally, storing fat-soluble vitamins is not a primary function of the placenta.
5. What is the area of the uterus where the fallopian tubes are inserted known as?
- A. Fundus
- B. Corpus or body
- C. Cavity
- D. Cornua
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Cornua. The cornua refers to the upper, horn-like parts of the uterus where the fallopian tubes are inserted. The fundus (choice A) is the rounded top portion of the uterus, the corpus or body (choice B) is the main part of the uterus excluding the cervix and fundus, and the cavity (choice C) refers to the internal space within the uterus. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not specifically denote the area where the fallopian tubes are inserted.
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