at 34 40 weeks of pregnancy the breast changes include at 34 40 weeks of pregnancy the breast changes include
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Reproductive System Exam Questions

1. At 34-40 weeks of pregnancy, the breast changes include:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the 34-40 weeks of pregnancy, Montgomery's tubercles become prominent. These are sebaceous glands on the areola, not the nipples. Choice A is incorrect as it describes the changes in nipples, not Montgomery's tubercles. Choice B is incorrect as colostrum production usually starts around the 16th week. Choice C is incorrect as breast tenderness is more common in early pregnancy due to hormonal changes.

2. A male client tells the RN that he does not want to take the atypical antipsychotic drug, olanzapine (Zyprexa), because of the side effects he experienced when he took it previously. Which statement is best for the RN to provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is essential for the nurse to address the client's concerns about the side effects of the medication. By acknowledging the side effects and reassuring the client that they are manageable, the nurse empowers the client to make an informed decision about their treatment. This approach fosters trust between the client and the healthcare provider, promotes open communication, and supports treatment adherence. Choices B and D are not appropriate as they do not address the client's specific concern about the side effects or offer constructive support. Choice C is premature as switching medications should be considered after exploring ways to manage the side effects of the current medication.

3. A client receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) to augment early labor. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain each time the infusion rate is increased?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is receiving oxytocin to augment labor, the most crucial assessment for the nurse to obtain each time the infusion rate is increased is monitoring the contraction pattern. Increasing the infusion rate of oxytocin can lead to stronger and more frequent contractions, which can have implications for both the mother and the baby. Monitoring the contraction pattern helps ensure the safe administration of oxytocin and allows for timely interventions if needed.

4. The client is unable to void, and the plan of care sets an objective for the client to ingest at least 1000 mL of fluid between 7:00 am and 3:30 pm. Which client response should the nurse document to indicate a successful outcome?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Drinking 240 mL of fluid five times during the shift indicates a fluid intake of 1200 mL, which exceeds the minimum objective of at least 1000 mL. The client meeting or exceeding the fluid intake goal is a clear indicator of a successful outcome. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because simply drinking adequate fluids, voiding without difficulty, or feeling less thirsty do not directly demonstrate meeting the specific objective of fluid intake set in the care plan.

5. The nurse is assessing a client who has a prescription for digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding indicates that the client is at risk for digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A low serum potassium level increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin toxicity is more likely to occur in individuals with low potassium levels because potassium is crucial for proper heart function. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute, blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg, and respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute are within normal ranges and do not directly indicate an increased risk of digoxin toxicity.

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