Nursing Elites

1. After assessing the health care needs of an elementary school, the nurse determines that an increased prevalence of pediculosis capitis is a priority problem. The nurse develops a 2-month program with the goal to eradicate the condition in the school. The program includes educational pamphlets sent home to parents and regular assessment of children by the school nurse. What action should the nurse implement to evaluate the effectiveness of the program?

• A. evaluate the teachers' ability to identify pediculosis capitis 2 months after initiation of the program
• B. conduct an initial examination of each child in the school to obtain baseline data
• C. survey parents 3 weeks after pamphlets are sent home to assess their understanding of the condition
• D. measure the prevalence of pediculosis capitis among the children after four months

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Measuring the prevalence of pediculosis capitis among the children after four months is the most appropriate action to evaluate the program's effectiveness. This approach provides data on the program's long-term impact and effectiveness in eradicating the condition. Option A focuses on the teachers' ability, which is not directly related to the program's effectiveness in eradicating the condition. Option B suggests conducting an initial examination, which does not provide information on the program's impact. Option C involves assessing parents' understanding, which is important but does not directly evaluate the program's effectiveness in eradicating pediculosis capitis.

2. The nurse is teaching a group of new mothers about infant care. Which topic should the nurse prioritize?

• A. signs of infant dehydration
• B. proper diaper changing techniques
• C. immunization schedule
• D. breastfeeding positions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: signs of infant dehydration. Recognizing signs of dehydration is crucial for ensuring the health and well-being of infants. Dehydration can be life-threatening for infants if not addressed promptly. While proper diaper changing techniques, immunization schedules, and breastfeeding positions are also important topics in infant care, being able to identify signs of dehydration takes precedence as it requires immediate attention to prevent serious consequences.

3. The nurse is developing a workshop on cancer prevention for a group of adults at a wellness bar. Which recommendation should the nurse include in the workshop?

• A. Know the four warning signs of cancer
• B. Maintain a healthy weight and exercise regularly
• C. Refrain from alcohol
• D. Obtain at least 6 to 10 hours of sleep per night

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining a healthy weight and exercising regularly are crucial recommendations in cancer prevention. These habits help reduce the risk of developing cancer by promoting overall health and reducing factors associated with cancer development. Knowing the warning signs of cancer (Choice A) is important for early detection but does not directly prevent cancer. While refraining from alcohol (Choice C) is beneficial for some cancers, it is not as universally applicable as maintaining a healthy weight and exercising. Getting adequate sleep (Choice D) is essential for overall health but is not as directly linked to cancer prevention as maintaining a healthy weight and regular exercise.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer atropine, an anticholinergic, to a client scheduled for a cholecystectomy. The client asks the provider to explain the reason for the prescribed medication. What response is best for the provider to provide?

• A. To increase gastric motility.
• B. To decrease the risk of bradycardia during surgery.
• C. To reduce secretions.
• D. To prevent nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atropine, an anticholinergic medication, is used preoperatively to prevent bradycardia by increasing the automaticity of the sinoatrial node during surgical anesthesia. Choice A is incorrect because atropine does not affect gastric motility. Choice C is incorrect as atropine is not primarily used to reduce secretions. Choice D is also incorrect because preventing nausea and vomiting is not the primary purpose of administering atropine in this context.

5. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with severe dyspnea. Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL.
• B. Serum potassium of 3.5 mEq/L.
• C. Serum creatinine of 1.0 mg/dL.
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 20 mg/dL.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL is within the normal range. However, in a client with heart failure and severe dyspnea, fluid retention is a significant concern. An elevated serum creatinine level may indicate impaired kidney function, which can worsen fluid overload. Therefore, immediate intervention is required to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and not indicative of immediate intervention in this scenario.

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