after assessing the health care needs of an elementary school the nurse determines that an increased prevalence of pediculosis capitis is a priority p
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Community Health

1. After assessing the health care needs of an elementary school, the nurse determines that an increased prevalence of pediculosis capitis is a priority problem. The nurse develops a 2-month program with the goal to eradicate the condition in the school. The program includes educational pamphlets sent home to parents and regular assessment of children by the school nurse. What action should the nurse implement to evaluate the effectiveness of the program?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Measuring the prevalence of pediculosis capitis among the children after four months is the most appropriate action to evaluate the program's effectiveness. This approach provides data on the program's long-term impact and effectiveness in eradicating the condition. Option A focuses on the teachers' ability, which is not directly related to the program's effectiveness in eradicating the condition. Option B suggests conducting an initial examination, which does not provide information on the program's impact. Option C involves assessing parents' understanding, which is important but does not directly evaluate the program's effectiveness in eradicating pediculosis capitis.

2. The nurse is documenting the medical history of a young adult who was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. The client smokes 2 packs of cigarettes a day, and his father died of a heart attack at the age of 45. Which annual screening is most important for the nurse to include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most important annual screening for the nurse to include is hyperlipidemia. Given the client's smoking history, family history of premature heart disease, and the increased risk of cardiovascular complications associated with diabetes, screening for hyperlipidemia is crucial. This screening is essential in assessing the client's risk of developing cardiovascular disease, which is a significant concern in this case. Peripheral neuropathy (choice A) is a common long-term complication of diabetes but may not be the most immediate concern in this scenario. Renal insufficiency (choice B) is also a complication of diabetes, but given the client's high cardiovascular risk, hyperlipidemia screening takes priority. Retinopathy (choice C) is an important complication of diabetes affecting the eyes, but in this case, focusing on cardiovascular risk assessment through hyperlipidemia screening is more critical.

3. The nurse is assessing a client with pneumonia who is receiving oxygen therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute indicates effective oxygen therapy. In pneumonia, the respiratory rate typically increases due to the body's effort to improve oxygenation. Option B (pH of 7.35) is related to acid-base balance, not specifically indicating oxygen therapy effectiveness. Option C (oxygen saturation of 92%) is below the normal range (95-100%), suggesting the need for oxygen therapy. Option D (clear breath sounds) is a positive finding but not a direct indicator of oxygen therapy effectiveness.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has just returned from hemodialysis. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dizziness after hemodialysis can indicate hypovolemia, hypotension, or other complications that require immediate intervention to prevent further deterioration or adverse events. Weight gain of 2 pounds may not be immediately concerning post-hemodialysis. A blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg is slightly elevated but may not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by symptoms. A heart rate of 88 beats per minute falls within the normal range and may not be an immediate cause for concern after hemodialysis.

5. During which home visit performed by a registered nurse or a practical nurse can the home healthcare agency expect Medicare reimbursement for documenting a skilled care service provided?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4-6 years of age. According to current CDC guidelines, a child receiving the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine at 12 months of age should plan to receive the MMR booster between 4-6 years of age. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the CDC's recommended age range for the MMR vaccine booster. It is crucial for healthcare providers to stay updated with current guidelines to ensure the timely administration of vaccines for optimal protection.

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