Nursing Elites

1. After assessing the health care needs of an elementary school, the nurse determines that an increased prevalence of pediculosis capitis is a priority problem. The nurse develops a 2-month program with the goal to eradicate the condition in the school. The program includes educational pamphlets sent home to parents and regular assessment of children by the school nurse. What action should the nurse implement to evaluate the effectiveness of the program?

• A. evaluate the teachers' ability to identify pediculosis capitis 2 months after initiation of the program
• B. conduct an initial examination of each child in the school to obtain baseline data
• C. survey parents 3 weeks after pamphlets are sent home to assess their understanding of the condition
• D. measure the prevalence of pediculosis capitis among the children after four months

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Measuring the prevalence of pediculosis capitis among the children after four months is the most appropriate action to evaluate the program's effectiveness. This approach provides data on the program's long-term impact and effectiveness in eradicating the condition. Option A focuses on the teachers' ability, which is not directly related to the program's effectiveness in eradicating the condition. Option B suggests conducting an initial examination, which does not provide information on the program's impact. Option C involves assessing parents' understanding, which is important but does not directly evaluate the program's effectiveness in eradicating pediculosis capitis.

2. The instructor is teaching a prenatal class about the importance of folic acid. Which outcome indicates that the teaching was effective?

• A. participants can list foods high in folic acid
• B. participants plan to take folic acid supplements daily
• C. participants understand the risks of folic acid deficiency
• D. participants demonstrate how to read nutrition labels for folic acid content

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because planning to take folic acid supplements daily is a proactive step towards preventing folic acid deficiency and reducing the risk of neural tube defects in pregnancy. While choice A is important for dietary knowledge, the direct action of taking supplements is more effective. Choice C, understanding the risks, is good but does not ensure action. Choice D, reading nutrition labels, is helpful but doesn't guarantee intake of folic acid.

3. The school nurse who is reviewing immunization records of students who will start kindergarten within the next month notes that most of the students have only received one dose of the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Note in the student records that the second dose of the MMR vaccine should be administered prior to entering first grade
• B. Send notices home with the children on the first day of class advising that MMR vaccine series must be completed
• C. Contact kindergarten parents to remind them that the second dose of MMR is due at the start of the school year
• D. Speak at the next parent-teacher association meeting to teach parents the benefits of immunizing their children

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for the school nurse is to contact kindergarten parents to remind them that the second dose of the MMR vaccine is due at the start of the school year. This approach directly addresses the issue of incomplete vaccination coverage and ensures that children receive the complete vaccination on time. Choice A is incorrect as it only notes the need for the second dose without actively engaging parents. Choice B is not as effective as directly contacting parents and may lead to delays in completing the vaccination series. Choice D, while promoting immunization, does not directly address the current situation of incomplete MMR vaccination among the kindergarten students.

4. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with acute renal failure. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood pressure of 180/100 mm Hg.
• B. Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours.
• C. Heart rate of 100 beats per minute.
• D. Nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours indicates oliguria, which can be a sign of worsening renal function and requires immediate intervention. In acute renal failure, maintaining adequate urine output is crucial to prevent further kidney damage and manage fluid balance. A high blood pressure reading (Option A) is concerning but may not require immediate intervention in this scenario as it could be due to the history of hypertension. A heart rate of 100 beats per minute (Option C) is slightly elevated but may not be the most critical finding at this moment. Nausea and vomiting (Option D) are important to assess but are not as urgent as addressing oliguria in a client with acute renal failure.

5. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with sudden severe abdominal pain. Which finding indicates the possibility of a perforated ulcer?

• A. Bowel sounds are hyperactive in all quadrants.
• B. Abdomen is soft and nondistended.
• C. The client reports sudden severe abdominal pain.
• D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sudden severe abdominal pain is a key clinical manifestation of a perforated ulcer. The sudden onset of severe pain is concerning for a perforation in the ulcer, which can lead to peritonitis if not promptly addressed. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hyperactive bowel sounds, a soft and nondistended abdomen, and a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg are not specific indicators of a perforated ulcer. Hyperactive bowel sounds may suggest increased gastrointestinal motility, a soft abdomen may not necessarily indicate a perforation, and a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg is within normal limits and does not directly relate to a perforated ulcer.

Similar Questions