HESI RN
Reproductive System Exam Questions
1. A woman is considered to be in menopause if she has experienced the cessation of her menses for a period of:
- A. 6 months
- B. 12 months
- C. 18 months
- D. 24 months
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Menopause is defined as the cessation of menses for 12 months. This period is significant because it indicates the end of a woman's reproductive years. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the established criteria for defining menopause.
2. A client is experiencing angina at rest. Which statement indicates a good understanding of the care required?
- A. I will notify the nurse if my chest pain is not relieved in 30 minutes.
- B. I will use nitroglycerin as needed, every 5 minutes, up to 3 doses.
- C. I will avoid physical activity until the pain subsides completely.
- D. I will take nitroglycerin 30 minutes before any physical activity.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Using nitroglycerin as needed, every 5 minutes, up to 3 doses, is the appropriate management for angina at rest. This helps dilate blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart. Choice A is incorrect because chest pain that persists at rest should be addressed immediately, not waiting for 30 minutes. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding physical activity is not a recommended approach during an angina episode. Choice D is incorrect because nitroglycerin should be used during chest pain episodes, not as a preventive measure before physical activity.
3. A client presents to the clinic with concerns about her left breast. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report?
- A. Multiple firm, round, freely movable masses.
- B. A slight asymmetry of the breasts.
- C. A fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the skin.
- D. Bloody discharge from the nipple.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the skin is concerning for malignancy, such as breast cancer, and should be reported immediately for further evaluation. This finding is more suspicious compared to multiple firm, round, freely movable masses (choice A), which could be benign breast lumps. A slight asymmetry of the breasts (choice B) is a common finding and not as alarming as a fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the skin. Bloody discharge from the nipple (choice D) can be suggestive of other conditions like intraductal papilloma but is not as urgent as the finding described in choice C.
4. The parents of a 3-year-old boy who has Duchenne muscular dystrophy ask, 'How can our son have this disease? We are wondering if we should have any more children.' What information should the nurse provide to parents?
- A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family
- B. The striated muscle groups of males can be impacted by a lack of the protein dystrophin in their mothers
- C. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated so muscle damage was incurred
- D. Birth trauma with a breech vaginal birth causes damage to the spinal cord, thus weakening the muscles
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder that primarily affects males. It is crucial for the nurse to explain to the parents that this condition follows an inheritance pattern where the gene mutation responsible for the disorder is located on the X chromosome. Males have only one X chromosome, so if they inherit the mutated gene, they will develop the disease. Females, on the other hand, have two X chromosomes, providing a backup copy that can compensate for the mutation. Understanding this inheritance pattern is essential for family planning decisions, as the risk of passing on the disorder to future children can be explained based on this genetic inheritance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the genetic basis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy or its inheritance pattern, which is crucial information for the parents in this scenario.
5. A client is being monitored while receiving bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) for urinary retention. Which of the following indicates a therapeutic effect of this medication?
- A. Increased heart rate
- B. Increased peristalsis
- C. Passage of flatus
- D. Urinary output of 50 mL per hour
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) is administered to stimulate the bladder and treat urinary retention. The therapeutic effect is indicated by an increased urinary output, as it demonstrates the medication's ability to prompt the bladder to empty. Increased heart rate and passage of flatus are unrelated to the therapeutic effects of bethanechol. Although bethanechol can increase peristalsis, the primary therapeutic goal is to address urinary retention.