Nursing Elites

1. A public health nurse is implementing a program to improve vaccination rates among children in the community. Which intervention is most likely to be effective?

• A. Offering vaccinations at convenient locations and times
• B. Distributing educational materials about vaccines
• C. Providing incentives for getting vaccinated
• D. Hosting informational sessions for parents

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering vaccinations at convenient locations and times is the most effective intervention as it reduces barriers to access and makes it easier for parents to get their children vaccinated. This strategy directly addresses the issue of convenience and accessibility, which are common reasons for low vaccination rates. Distributing educational materials about vaccines (Choice B) can be helpful but may not directly address access issues. Providing incentives for getting vaccinated (Choice C) may be controversial and not sustainable in the long term. Hosting informational sessions for parents (Choice D) can be beneficial for education but may not directly improve vaccination rates as much as increasing access.

2. When planning a community health fair to promote mental health awareness, which activity should be included to best engage participants?

• A. free mental health screenings
• B. lectures on mental health topics
• C. distribution of mental health resources
• D. interactive workshops on stress management

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best activity to engage participants in a community health fair promoting mental health awareness is to offer free mental health screenings. This activity not only attracts participants but also provides them with immediate, valuable information about their mental health status. Free screenings can help raise awareness, encourage early detection of mental health issues, and prompt participants to seek further assistance if needed. Lectures, while informative, may not be as engaging or impactful as the personalized feedback individuals receive from screenings. Distributing resources is helpful, but active engagement through screenings is more effective in promoting awareness and encouraging action. Interactive workshops on stress management are beneficial but might not provide the same level of individualized insight into mental health as screenings do.

3. A client with a history of epilepsy is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
• B. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• C. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
• D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine such as lorazepam (Ativan) to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam acts quickly and effectively in stopping seizures. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is often used as a second-line agent for status epilepticus, and carbamazepine (Tegretol) is not typically indicated for the acute treatment of status epilepticus. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is a pain reliever and antipyretic but is not used in the treatment of status epilepticus.

4. An older client requiring total care resides with a family consisting of two daughters who take shifts providing care around-the-clock. During a home visit, the daughters ask the nurse about resources that are available for client care while they attend a scheduled family reunion. Which information is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. propose the family seek assistance for care in the area of the reunion's location
• B. tell the caregivers to consider hiring a private duty nurse during the time away
• C. advise to have a case management evaluation of the client's home environment
• D. suggest social services be contacted to find a respite care facility for the client

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Respite care provides temporary relief for primary caregivers, allowing them to attend the reunion while ensuring the client is cared for.

5. A client with a history of alcohol abuse is admitted with cirrhosis. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Jaundice.
• B. Ascites.
• C. Peripheral edema.
• D. Spider angiomas.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Peripheral edema in a client with cirrhosis can indicate fluid overload and worsening liver function, necessitating immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as respiratory distress, cardiac issues, or renal impairment. Jaundice (choice A) is a common manifestation of cirrhosis but may not require immediate intervention unless severe. Ascites (choice B) is also a common complication of cirrhosis that may require intervention but is not as urgent as addressing peripheral edema. Spider angiomas (choice D) are typically benign skin lesions associated with cirrhosis but do not require immediate intervention unless bleeding or rupture occurs.

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