a patient with type 1 diabetes is prescribed insulin glargine what is the primary characteristic of this insulin
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1. A patient with type 1 diabetes is prescribed insulin glargine. What is the primary characteristic of this insulin?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Insulin glargine is classified as a long-acting insulin. It is designed to provide a consistent level of insulin over approximately 24 hours, helping to keep blood glucose levels stable throughout the day. This long duration of action makes it suitable for basal insulin replacement in patients with type 1 diabetes, providing a background level of insulin to mimic the body's natural release of insulin between meals and overnight.

2. An 89-year-old male client complains to the nurse that people are whispering behind his back and mumbling when they talk to him. What age-related condition is likely to be occurring with this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Presbycusis. Presbycusis is age-related hearing loss that often affects the ability to hear high-pitched sounds, making speech appear mumbled. This condition is common in older adults and can lead to difficulties in understanding conversations, as in the case of the client complaining about people whispering and mumbling.

3. A client is on a mechanical ventilator. Which client response indicates that the neuromuscular blocker tubocurarine chloride (Tubarine) is effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tubocurarine chloride is a neuromuscular blocker that works by causing paralysis of skeletal muscles. Therefore, if the client's extremities are paralyzed, it indicates that the medication is effective in achieving the desired muscle relaxation necessary for mechanical ventilation. Choices B and C are incorrect as they suggest muscle activity, which would not be expected with the administration of a neuromuscular blocker. Choice D is unrelated to the effectiveness of tubocurarine chloride.

4. A client who is receiving heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds is elevated, indicating a risk of bleeding. The appropriate action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider. Increasing the heparin infusion rate can further elevate the aPTT, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Applying pressure to the injection site is not relevant in this situation. Administering protamine sulfate is used to reverse the effects of heparin in cases of overdose or bleeding, but it is not the initial action for an elevated aPTT.

5. A client with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is at risk for which of the following conditions?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chronic alcohol abuse can lead to liver cirrhosis due to long-term liver damage. Alcohol consumption over time can cause inflammation and scarring of the liver, eventually leading to cirrhosis. This condition can severely impact liver function and may progress to liver failure if not addressed.

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