a patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis dvt is prescribed rivaroxaban what is the primary advantage of this medication over warfarin
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI Adult Medical Surgical

1. What is the primary advantage of prescribing rivaroxaban over warfarin for a patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary advantage of prescribing rivaroxaban over warfarin for a patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is that rivaroxaban does not require regular INR monitoring. This eliminates the need for frequent blood tests to adjust the dosage, making it more convenient for patients to manage their anticoagulant therapy.

2. A patient with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Report any visual disturbances.' Patients taking digoxin should be instructed to report any visual disturbances, as this can be a sign of digoxin toxicity. Visual disturbances like changes in color vision, blurred vision, or seeing halos around lights can indicate an overdose of digoxin. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Instructing a patient to take an extra dose if they miss one can lead to overdose. Avoiding high-potassium foods is important for patients on potassium-sparing diuretics, not digoxin. Stopping the medication if the pulse is normal is incorrect, as the pulse rate alone is not an indicator of digoxin effectiveness or toxicity.

3. A client is being treated with an antidepressant for major depressive disorder. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C indicates a need for further teaching because stopping antidepressants abruptly can lead to withdrawal symptoms. It is essential for the client to follow the healthcare provider's instructions and complete the full course of medication even if they start feeling better to prevent potential relapse or withdrawal effects.

4. An 82-year-old woman with no past medical history presents to your clinic complaining of arthritic symptoms. She is not taking any medications but needs something for her arthritis. You want to start her on a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) but are concerned about her age and the risk of peptic ulcers. As she has to pay for her medications out-of-pocket and requests the most cost-effective option, what is the most appropriate treatment plan?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate treatment plan would be to prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone. While the elderly woman is at a higher risk of developing NSAID-related toxicity, prophylaxis with misoprostol or sucralfate is not recommended in the absence of a history of peptic ulcer disease or abdominal symptoms. Celecoxib, a selective COX-2 inhibitor, may be a more expensive option than traditional NSAIDs. Considering the patient's preference for the most inexpensive option and the lack of specific risk factors, starting with a standalone NSAID is the most suitable approach.

5. A patient with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propylthiouracil (PTU). What is the primary purpose of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Propylthiouracil (PTU) is a medication used to treat hyperthyroidism by suppressing the production of thyroid hormones. It works by inhibiting the enzyme responsible for the synthesis of thyroid hormones, thereby reducing their levels in the body. This helps to alleviate the symptoms of hyperthyroidism and restore thyroid hormone levels to normal range.

Similar Questions

The nurse is caring for a client with hyperthyroidism. Which intervention should the nurse implement to manage the client's condition?
A 65-year-old woman presents with difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and a history of long-standing heartburn. She has been on proton-pump inhibitors for years, but her symptoms have worsened. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 62-year-old male client with a history of coronary artery disease complains that his heart is 'racing' and he often feels dizzy. His blood pressure is 110/60, and he uses portable oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula. Based on the rhythm shown, which prescription should the nurse administer?
A 32-year-old woman presents with a 10-month history of an intermittent burning sensation in the epigastrium that is sometimes related to eating. She has heard about bacteria that can cause gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms. She has had no change in her weight and denies dysphagia. Her laboratory tests are normal. Which of the following would you recommend?
A patient with epilepsy is prescribed phenytoin. What is the primary side effect the nurse should monitor for?

Access More Features

ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses