Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary advantage of prescribing rivaroxaban over warfarin for a patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

• A. No need for regular INR monitoring
• B. Lower risk of bleeding
• C. Fewer dietary restrictions
• D. Longer half-life

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary advantage of prescribing rivaroxaban over warfarin for a patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is that rivaroxaban does not require regular INR monitoring. This eliminates the need for frequent blood tests to adjust the dosage, making it more convenient for patients to manage their anticoagulant therapy.

2. The client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about dietary modifications by the nurse. Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Increase your intake of spicy foods.
• B. Avoid lying down immediately after eating.
• C. Consume a high-fat diet.
• D. Drink caffeinated beverages with meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Avoiding lying down immediately after eating is essential in managing GERD as it helps prevent reflux symptoms by allowing gravity to assist in keeping stomach contents down. Lying down can worsen symptoms by allowing acid to flow back into the esophagus.

3. A patient with hyperthyroidism is to receive radioactive iodine therapy. What information should the nurse include in the patient teaching plan?

• A. Avoid close contact with pregnant women for one week.
• B. Take iodine supplement daily.
• C. Restrict fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
• D. Use disposable utensils for all meals.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid close contact with pregnant women for one week. This precaution is essential to prevent radiation exposure to vulnerable populations. Pregnant women and small children are more sensitive to radiation, making it crucial for patients undergoing radioactive iodine therapy to avoid close contact with them for a specified period. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking iodine supplements daily is not necessary for patients receiving radioactive iodine therapy. Restricting fluid intake to 1 liter per day is not a standard recommendation for radioactive iodine therapy. Using disposable utensils for all meals is not a specific precaution related to radioactive iodine therapy.

4. A 35-year-old male patient presents with right upper quadrant pain, fever for the past 48 hours, preceded by new onset jaundice over the past few weeks. He states that he has had diarrhea on and off for several years but never had this investigated. A liver ultrasound is negative for gallstones or evidence of cholecystitis. His lab tests reveal total bilirubin 6.2, alkaline phosphatase 450, AST 150, ALT 120, albumin 2.6. The next diagnostic test of choice would be

• A. Liver biopsy
• B. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography
• C. Hepatitis B surface antigen and hepatitis C RNA assay
• D. Colonoscopy with biopsies

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice, along with abnormal liver function tests, suggests a biliary tract problem. Given the suspicion of obstructed bile flow and the negative liver ultrasound for gallstones, magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) is the next appropriate step to evaluate the biliary system and pancreatic ducts. MRCP is non-invasive and can provide detailed images for diagnosis. Liver biopsy is not the preferred initial diagnostic test in this context. Testing for hepatitis B and C would not address the current clinical scenario, and colonoscopy is not indicated for the presenting symptoms.

5. When covering another nurse's assignment during a lunch break, based on the status report provided, which client should the charge nurse check first?

• A. The client admitted yesterday with diabetic ketoacidosis whose blood glucose level is now 195 mg/dl.
• B. The client with an ileal conduit created two days ago with a scant amount of blood in the drainage pouch.
• C. The client post-triple coronary bypass four days ago who has serosanguinous drainage in the chest tube.
• D. The client with a pneumothorax secondary to a gunshot wound with a current pulse oximeter reading of 90%.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client with a pneumothorax and a pulse oximeter reading of 90% indicates potential respiratory compromise, requiring immediate attention to prevent further deterioration.

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