a patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis dvt is prescribed rivaroxaban what is the primary advantage of this medication over warfarin
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1. What is the primary advantage of prescribing rivaroxaban over warfarin for a patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary advantage of prescribing rivaroxaban over warfarin for a patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is that rivaroxaban does not require regular INR monitoring. This eliminates the need for frequent blood tests to adjust the dosage, making it more convenient for patients to manage their anticoagulant therapy.

2. The preceptor is orienting a new graduate nurse to the critical care unit. The preceptor asks the new graduate to state symptoms that most likely indicate the beginning of a shock state in a critically ill client. What findings should the new graduate nurse identify?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tachycardia, mental status change, and low urine output are early indicators of shock. In a critically ill client, these findings suggest a decrease in tissue perfusion. Prompt recognition and intervention are crucial to prevent the progression of shock and its complications.

3. A client with liver cirrhosis is prescribed lactulose. What is the purpose of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lactulose is prescribed to reduce ammonia levels in clients with liver cirrhosis. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication of liver cirrhosis. Lactulose works by acidifying the colon, which in turn traps ammonia in the colon and helps its elimination from the body through stool, thereby reducing the risk of hepatic encephalopathy. Choice A is incorrect because lactulose does not lower blood sugar levels. Choice C is incorrect as lactulose is not used to treat liver inflammation. Choice D is incorrect as lactulose does not improve bile flow.

4. A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) through a central line suddenly develops dyspnea, chest pain, and a drop in blood pressure. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing the client in Trendelenburg position should be the initial action as it can help manage a suspected air embolism, a potential complication of TPN administration. This position helps trap air in the apex of the atrium, reducing the risk of air reaching the pulmonary circulation and causing further harm. Once the client is in a safe position, further actions such as stopping the TPN infusion, notifying the healthcare provider, and administering oxygen can be taken as appropriate.

5. A 9-year-old female client was recently diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which symptom will her parents most likely report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Increased thirst and fluid intake, such as drinking more soft drinks than previously, is a common symptom of diabetes mellitus in children. This increased thirst is due to the body trying to eliminate excess sugar through urination, leading to dehydration and the need for more fluids. The other choices are less likely to be directly related to the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus in this scenario.

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