a 34 year old woman presents with intermittent abdominal pain bloating and diarrhea she notes that her symptoms improve with fasting she has a history
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1. A 34-year-old woman presents with intermittent abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea. She notes that her symptoms improve with fasting. She has a history of iron deficiency anemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's symptoms of intermittent abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea that improve with fasting, along with a history of iron deficiency anemia, are highly suggestive of celiac disease. In celiac disease, gluten ingestion leads to mucosal damage in the small intestine, causing malabsorption of nutrients like iron, leading to anemia. The improvement of symptoms with fasting can be explained by the temporary avoidance of gluten-containing foods. Irritable bowel syndrome typically does not improve with fasting. Lactose intolerance usually presents with symptoms after dairy consumption, not with fasting. Crohn's disease typically presents with more chronic symptoms and is not commonly associated with improvement on fasting.

2. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is being treated with risperidone (Risperdal). Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle rigidity is a crucial finding to report immediately as it can indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a rare but potentially life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications. NMS is characterized by muscle rigidity, high fever, autonomic dysfunction, and altered mental status. Prompt recognition and intervention are essential to prevent serious complications or death.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed dabigatran (Pradaxa). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the client's teaching regarding dabigatran (Pradaxa) is to take the medication at the same time each day. This ensures a consistent blood level and effectiveness of the medication, which is crucial in managing atrial fibrillation and preventing complications. It helps maintain a steady therapeutic effect and reduces the risk of erratic drug levels in the body.

4. The client has received 250 ml of 0.9% normal saline through the IV line in the last hour. The client is now tachypneic and has a pulse rate of 120 beats/minute, with a pulse volume of +4. In addition to reporting the assessment findings to the healthcare provider, what action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of fluid overload with tachypnea and a high pulse rate. Decreasing the saline to a keep-open rate is appropriate to prevent further fluid volume excess. This action allows for IV access to be maintained while reducing the fluid administered, helping to manage the symptoms of fluid overload.

5. A patient with type 1 diabetes is prescribed insulin glargine. What is the primary characteristic of this insulin?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Insulin glargine is classified as a long-acting insulin. It is designed to provide a consistent level of insulin over approximately 24 hours, helping to keep blood glucose levels stable throughout the day. This long duration of action makes it suitable for basal insulin replacement in patients with type 1 diabetes, providing a background level of insulin to mimic the body's natural release of insulin between meals and overnight.

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