Nursing Elites

1. A 34-year-old woman presents with intermittent abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea. She notes that her symptoms improve with fasting. She has a history of iron deficiency anemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Irritable bowel syndrome
• B. Celiac disease
• C. Lactose intolerance
• D. Crohn's disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's symptoms of intermittent abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea that improve with fasting, along with a history of iron deficiency anemia, are highly suggestive of celiac disease. In celiac disease, gluten ingestion leads to mucosal damage in the small intestine, causing malabsorption of nutrients like iron, leading to anemia. The improvement of symptoms with fasting can be explained by the temporary avoidance of gluten-containing foods. Irritable bowel syndrome typically does not improve with fasting. Lactose intolerance usually presents with symptoms after dairy consumption, not with fasting. Crohn's disease typically presents with more chronic symptoms and is not commonly associated with improvement on fasting.

2. A 28-year-old woman at 34 weeks of gestation presents with elevated liver enzymes and pruritus. Labs reveal total bilirubin to be 4.2 mg/dL, AST 480 U/L, ALT 640 U/L, and alkaline phosphatase 232 U/L. Viral hepatitis serologies and ANA are negative. On physical examination, she is jaundiced, but has a normal blood pressure, no edema, and a soft abdomen. The fetus is in no distress. Which of the following is true?

• A. The baby should be delivered immediately
• B. Symptoms will resolve promptly after delivery
• C. There is little risk of recurrence with subsequent pregnancies
• D. The mother should be screened for long-chain 3-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase (LCHAD) deficiency

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation is consistent with intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy (ICP), a condition characterized by elevated liver enzymes, pruritus, and jaundice in the absence of other liver disease causes. ICP typically resolves promptly after delivery. Immediate delivery is indicated only for fetal distress, not maternal symptoms. ICP does have a significant risk of recurrence in subsequent pregnancies. Treatment options for ICP include cholestyramine and ursodeoxycholic acid. Screening for long-chain 3-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase (LCHAD) deficiency is not indicated in this context as it is associated with acute fatty liver of pregnancy and HELLP syndrome, not ICP.

3. The client has acute kidney injury (AKI). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Urine output of 50 ml in the last hour.
• B. Serum potassium of 6.2 mEq/L.
• C. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg.
• D. Serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated serum potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L in a client with AKI can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias, necessitating immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia is a serious complication in AKI as impaired kidney function can result in the accumulation of potassium in the blood, posing a risk of cardiac arrest. Prompt treatment to lower potassium levels is crucial to prevent cardiac complications in this situation.

4. A client returns to the unit after a neck dissection. The surgeon placed a Jackson-Pratt drain in the wound. When assessing the wound drainage over the first 24 postoperative hours, what finding would prompt the nurse to notify the health care provider immediately?

• A. Presence of small blood clots in the drainage
• B. 60 mL of milky or cloudy drainage
• C. Spots of drainage on the dressings surrounding the drain
• D. 120 mL of serosanguinous drainage

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Milky or cloudy drainage can indicate infection or lymphatic leakage, which requires immediate attention. This finding may suggest a serious complication post neck dissection, warranting prompt notification of the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention.

5. Which assessment finding indicates a client's readiness to leave the nursing unit for a bronchoscopy?

• A. Client denies allergies to contrast media.
• B. Skin prep to insertion site completed.
• C. On-call sedation administered.
• D. Oxygen at 2 L/minute via nasal cannula.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering on-call sedation is crucial before a bronchoscopy to ensure the client is comfortable and adequately prepared for the procedure. Sedation helps reduce anxiety, discomfort, and ensures the client remains still during the bronchoscopy, enabling the healthcare provider to perform the procedure effectively.

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