Nursing Elites

1. A 34-year-old woman presents with intermittent abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea. She notes that her symptoms improve with fasting. She has a history of iron deficiency anemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Irritable bowel syndrome
• B. Celiac disease
• C. Lactose intolerance
• D. Crohn's disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's symptoms of intermittent abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea that improve with fasting, along with a history of iron deficiency anemia, are highly suggestive of celiac disease. In celiac disease, gluten ingestion leads to mucosal damage in the small intestine, causing malabsorption of nutrients like iron, leading to anemia. The improvement of symptoms with fasting can be explained by the temporary avoidance of gluten-containing foods. Irritable bowel syndrome typically does not improve with fasting. Lactose intolerance usually presents with symptoms after dairy consumption, not with fasting. Crohn's disease typically presents with more chronic symptoms and is not commonly associated with improvement on fasting.

2. A client with cirrhosis is at risk for bleeding. Which laboratory test is most important to monitor?

• A. Blood glucose
• B. Serum creatinine
• C. Prothrombin time (PT)
• D. Electrolytes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, monitoring the Prothrombin time (PT) is crucial as it assesses the blood's ability to clot. Cirrhosis can lead to impaired liver function, affecting the synthesis of clotting factors, hence increasing the risk of bleeding. Maintaining a close watch on PT levels helps in timely intervention to prevent excessive bleeding episodes. Blood glucose (Choice A) is not directly related to the clotting function; serum creatinine (Choice B) and electrolytes (Choice D) are important, but in cirrhosis, monitoring PT takes precedence due to the increased bleeding risk.

3. A client in acute renal failure has a serum potassium level of 6.3 mEq/L. What intervention can the nurse expect the healthcare provider to prescribe?

• A. Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin) orally.
• B. Erythropoietin (Epogen) intravenously.
• C. Kayexalate retention enema.
• D. Azathioprine (Imuran) orally.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute renal failure with high serum potassium levels, the healthcare provider is likely to prescribe a Kayexalate retention enema. Kayexalate is a medication used to lower elevated potassium levels by promoting potassium excretion through the gastrointestinal tract, thus aiding in the management of hyperkalemia in clients with renal failure.

4. A client with liver cirrhosis is prescribed lactulose. What is the purpose of this medication?

• A. To lower blood sugar levels
• B. To reduce ammonia levels
• C. To treat liver inflammation
• D. To improve bile flow

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lactulose is prescribed to reduce ammonia levels in clients with liver cirrhosis. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication of liver cirrhosis. Lactulose works by acidifying the colon, which in turn traps ammonia in the colon and helps its elimination from the body through stool, thereby reducing the risk of hepatic encephalopathy. Choice A is incorrect because lactulose does not lower blood sugar levels. Choice C is incorrect as lactulose is not used to treat liver inflammation. Choice D is incorrect as lactulose does not improve bile flow.

5. A 45-year-old woman with occasional indigestion has had episodes of chest pain and dysphagia to both solids and liquids. An upper GI series and EGD fail to disclose any structural abnormalities. What is the most appropriate initial therapy?

• A. Sucralfate
• B. Proton pump inhibitor
• C. Prokinetic agent
• D. Benzodiazepine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's symptoms of chest pain and dysphagia suggest esophageal spasm, often related to underlying gastroesophageal reflux. The initial therapy should focus on acid suppression. Proton pump inhibitors are the preferred choice to reduce acid production and alleviate symptoms. If proton pump inhibitors are ineffective, other options like smooth muscle relaxants or antidepressants may be considered. A Heller myotomy is not indicated in this case as the patient does not have achalasia.

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