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1. A patient with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propylthiouracil (PTU). What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A. Increase thyroid hormone production
- B. Suppress thyroid hormone production
- C. Enhance iodine absorption
- D. Stimulate the thyroid gland
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Propylthiouracil (PTU) is a medication used to treat hyperthyroidism by suppressing the production of thyroid hormones. It works by inhibiting the enzyme responsible for the synthesis of thyroid hormones, thereby reducing their levels in the body. This helps to alleviate the symptoms of hyperthyroidism and restore thyroid hormone levels to normal range.
2. The client with a history of heart failure is taking furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Serum sodium.
- B. Serum potassium.
- C. Serum calcium.
- D. Serum magnesium.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, causing hypokalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias associated with low potassium levels.
3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which assessment finding requires the healthcare provider's immediate action?
- A. Loss of deep tendon reflexes.
- B. Ascending weakness.
- C. New onset of confusion.
- D. Decreased vital capacity.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Decreased vital capacity is the most critical assessment finding in a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome as it indicates respiratory compromise. This requires immediate intervention to ensure adequate ventilation and prevent respiratory failure, a common complication of this syndrome. Monitoring and maintaining respiratory function are vital in these clients to prevent complications such as respiratory distress, hypoxia, and respiratory failure. Loss of deep tendon reflexes and ascending weakness are typical manifestations of Guillain-Barré syndrome but do not require immediate action compared to compromised respiratory function. New onset of confusion may be a concern but is not as immediately life-threatening as decreased vital capacity.
4. A patient with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. What side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a patient is prescribed lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, the nurse should monitor for hyperkalemia. Lisinopril can cause hyperkalemia by decreasing aldosterone secretion, which leads to potassium retention in the body. Hyperkalemia is a potential side effect of ACE inhibitors and should be closely monitored, as it can have serious consequences such as affecting cardiac function.
5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with Raynaud's phenomenon. Which finding should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Thickened and hardened skin.
- B. Painless ulcers on the fingertips.
- C. Episodes of cyanosis and pallor in the fingers.
- D. Red, scaly patches on the hands.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Raynaud's phenomenon is characterized by vasospasm, leading to episodes of cyanosis (bluish discoloration) and pallor (pale color) in the fingers or toes, often triggered by cold temperatures or stress. This occurs due to the reduced blood flow during vasospastic episodes, causing the discoloration. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect findings associated with other conditions and are not typical of Raynaud's phenomenon.
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