Nursing Elites

1. A patient with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propylthiouracil (PTU). What is the primary purpose of this medication?

• A. Increase thyroid hormone production
• B. Suppress thyroid hormone production
• C. Enhance iodine absorption
• D. Stimulate the thyroid gland

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Propylthiouracil (PTU) is a medication used to treat hyperthyroidism by suppressing the production of thyroid hormones. It works by inhibiting the enzyme responsible for the synthesis of thyroid hormones, thereby reducing their levels in the body. This helps to alleviate the symptoms of hyperthyroidism and restore thyroid hormone levels to normal range.

2. The sister of a patient diagnosed with BRCA gene-related breast cancer asks the nurse, 'Do you think I should be tested for the gene?' Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. In most cases, breast cancer is not caused by the BRCA gene.
• B. It depends on how you will feel if the test is positive for the BRCA gene.
• C. There are many things to consider before deciding to have genetic testing.
• D. You should decide first whether you are willing to have a bilateral mastectomy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate response by the nurse is C: 'There are many things to consider before deciding to have genetic testing.' Genetic testing for BRCA gene mutations is a complex decision that involves various factors such as emotional readiness, potential impact on insurance and employability, and the implications of test results. Option A is incorrect because although most breast cancers are not related to BRCA gene mutations, individuals with these mutations have a significantly higher risk. Option B is not ideal as it oversimplifies the decision-making process by focusing solely on emotional aspects. Option D is incorrect as it implies a predetermined course of action (mastectomy) before even undergoing genetic testing, which is not appropriate.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with hyperthyroidism. Which intervention should the nurse implement to manage the client's condition?

• A. Provide a high-calorie diet.
• B. Encourage frequent rest periods.
• C. Restrict fluid intake.
• D. Administer a stool softener.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging frequent rest periods is essential in managing hyperthyroidism as it helps address the fatigue and hypermetabolic state commonly associated with this condition. Rest is crucial to support the body's recovery and reduce the stress on the thyroid gland. While nutrition is important in managing hyperthyroidism, providing a high-calorie diet is not the priority intervention. Restricting fluid intake is not typically necessary unless there are specific indications such as heart failure. Administering a stool softener is not directly related to managing hyperthyroidism.

4. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is experiencing severe shortness of breath and has pink, frothy sputum. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer morphine sulfate.
• B. Place the client in a high Fowler's position.
• C. Initiate continuous ECG monitoring.
• D. Prepare the client for intubation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with chronic heart failure experiencing severe shortness of breath and pink, frothy sputum, the priority action for the nurse is to place the client in a high Fowler's position. This position helps improve lung expansion, ease breathing, and enhance oxygenation by reducing venous return and decreasing preload on the heart. It is crucial to address the client's respiratory distress promptly before considering other interventions. Administering morphine sulfate (choice A) may be appropriate later to relieve anxiety and reduce the work of breathing, but positioning is the priority. Continuous ECG monitoring (choice C) and preparing for intubation (choice D) are important but secondary to addressing the respiratory distress and optimizing oxygenation.

5. A 46-year-old man with a history of cirrhosis is brought in by his wife because he has been acting strangely. On examination, he is disoriented, ataxic, and has slurred speech. He is also hyperreflexic. His white blood cell count is normal. His hematocrit is 34%. Coagulation times are elevated. His ammonia level is normal. Which of the following statements regarding his management is correct?

• A. He should be treated with a low-protein diet and lactulose
• B. Lorazepam is not the drug of choice to control his behavior
• C. He should not be placed on gentamicin prophylactically to prevent the development of peritonitis
• D. If the patient complains of pain, acetaminophen should be avoided and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents should be used

Correct answer: A

Rationale: This patient presents with symptoms consistent with hepatic encephalopathy. Despite having a normal ammonia level, he should be treated with lactulose and a low-protein diet as recommended for stage 2 hepatic encephalopathy. The normal ammonia level does not exclude the diagnosis, as it lacks sensitivity and specificity. Medications like lorazepam, gentamicin, and NSAIDs should be avoided due to their potential adverse effects in patients with liver disease. Acetaminophen should also be avoided in such patients.

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