Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional is caring for a client with a chest tube following a thoracotomy. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.
• B. Serosanguineous drainage in the collection chamber.
• C. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber.
• D. Chest tube secured to the client's chest wall.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak, which requires immediate intervention to prevent complications such as pneumothorax. An air leak can lead to ineffective lung expansion, respiratory distress, and compromised gas exchange. Therefore, prompt action is necessary to maintain the integrity of the closed drainage system and prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because serosanguineous drainage is an expected finding post-thoracotomy, intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber is normal, and having the chest tube secured to the client's chest wall is essential for stability and proper functioning.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a patient who is taking warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the healthcare provider monitor closely?

• A. Platelet count.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT).
• C. Hemoglobin level.
• D. White blood cell count.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When caring for a patient on warfarin, monitoring prothrombin time (PT) is crucial. PT helps assess the blood's ability to clot properly, ensuring the patient maintains therapeutic anticoagulation levels while minimizing bleeding risks. Platelet count (Choice A) is important but not the most critical for warfarin therapy. Hemoglobin level (Choice C) and white blood cell count (Choice D) are not directly related to monitoring the effects of warfarin.

3. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is experiencing severe shortness of breath and has pink, frothy sputum. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer morphine sulfate.
• B. Place the client in a high Fowler's position.
• C. Initiate continuous ECG monitoring.
• D. Prepare the client for intubation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with chronic heart failure experiencing severe shortness of breath and pink, frothy sputum, the priority action for the nurse is to place the client in a high Fowler's position. This position helps improve lung expansion, ease breathing, and enhance oxygenation by reducing venous return and decreasing preload on the heart. It is crucial to address the client's respiratory distress promptly before considering other interventions. Administering morphine sulfate (choice A) may be appropriate later to relieve anxiety and reduce the work of breathing, but positioning is the priority. Continuous ECG monitoring (choice C) and preparing for intubation (choice D) are important but secondary to addressing the respiratory distress and optimizing oxygenation.

4. A client with a history of chronic alcohol use is admitted with confusion and an unsteady gait. Which deficiency should the nurse suspect?

• A. Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
• B. Cyanocobalamin (Vitamin B12)
• C. Folic acid
• D. Vitamin D

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Thiamine (Vitamin B1). Chronic alcohol use can lead to thiamine deficiency, which can result in neurological symptoms such as confusion and an unsteady gait. Thiamine is essential for proper brain function and nerve conduction, and its deficiency is common in individuals with alcohol use disorder. Cyanocobalamin (Vitamin B12) deficiency can also present with neurological symptoms, but in this case, the patient's history of chronic alcohol use points more towards thiamine deficiency. Folic acid deficiency typically presents with symptoms like fatigue and megaloblastic anemia. Vitamin D deficiency is associated with bone health issues rather than neurological symptoms.

5. An elderly female client comes to the clinic for a regular check-up. The client tells the nurse that she has increased her daily doses of acetaminophen (Tylenol) for the past month to control joint pain. Based on this client's comment, what previous lab values should the nurse compare with today's lab report?

• A. Look at last quarter's hemoglobin and hematocrit to assess for dehydration.
• B. Look for an increase in today's LDH compared to the previous one to assess for possible liver damage.
• C. Expect to find an increase in today's APTT compared to last quarter's due to bleeding.
• D. Determine if there is a decrease in serum potassium due to renal compromise.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client increases their daily doses of acetaminophen for joint pain, it raises concerns about possible liver damage due to acetaminophen overdose. LDH (Lactate Dehydrogenase) levels can indicate liver function, so comparing today's levels with previous ones can help assess for liver damage caused by acetaminophen overuse.

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