Nursing Elites

1. A patient is admitted for hypovolemia associated with multiple draining wounds. Which assessment would be the most accurate way for the nurse to evaluate fluid balance?

• A. Skin turgor
• B. Daily weight
• C. Presence of edema
• D. Hourly urine output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Daily weight is the most easily obtained and accurate means of assessing volume status. Skin turgor varies considerably with age and can be affected by various factors other than fluid balance. Presence of edema indicates excess fluid has moved into the interstitial space, which may not always be directly correlated with overall fluid balance. Hourly urine outputs, though important, do not provide a comprehensive picture of fluid balance as they do not consider fluid intake, insensible losses, or other sources of fluid loss.

2. A postoperative client has three different PRN analgesics prescribed for different levels of pain. The nurse inadvertently administers a dose that is not within the prescribed parameters. What actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Assess for side effects of the medication.
• B. Document the client's responses.
• C. Complete a medication error report.
• D. Determine if the pain was relieved.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: This is a medication error, and the first step in addressing it is to assess for any side effects of the medication on the patient. Some analgesics can cause respiratory depression, so it is crucial to monitor for vital sign changes or respiratory distress. Once the patient is stable, the next steps would include contacting the provider, documenting the response, and completing a medication error report. Choices B, C, and D are not the immediate priority when dealing with a medication error. While documenting the client's responses and completing a medication error report are important, assessing for side effects and ensuring patient safety come first.

3. When assessing a pregnant patient with eclampsia who is receiving IV magnesium sulfate, which finding should the nurse report to the health care provider immediately?

• A. The bibasilar breath sounds are decreased.
• B. The patellar and triceps reflexes are absent.
• C. The patient has been sleeping most of the day.
• D. The patient reports feeling 'sick to my stomach.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the absence of patellar and triceps reflexes indicates potential magnesium toxicity, requiring immediate intervention. Nausea and lethargy are common side effects of elevated magnesium levels and should be reported, but they are not as critical as the loss of deep tendon reflexes. Decreased breath sounds suggest the need for coughing and deep breathing to prevent atelectasis, which is important but not as urgent as addressing magnesium toxicity.

4. After receiving change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?

• A. Patient with a serum potassium level of 5.0 mEq/L who is complaining of abdominal cramping
• B. Patient with a serum sodium level of 145 mEq/L who has a dry mouth and is asking for a glass of water
• C. Patient with a serum magnesium level of 1.1 mEq/L who has tremors and hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
• D. Patient with a serum phosphorus level of 4.5 mg/dL who has multiple soft tissue calcium-phosphate precipitates

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is patient C with a serum magnesium level of 1.1 mEq/L who has tremors and hyperactive deep tendon reflexes. The low magnesium level and neuromuscular irritability suggest that the patient may be at risk for seizures, which are life-threatening. Assessing and addressing this patient's condition promptly is crucial to prevent complications. Patients A, B, and D have mild electrolyte disturbances or symptoms that require attention, but they are not at immediate risk for life-threatening complications like seizures, unlike patient C.

5. A client who has a body mass index (BMI) of 30 is requesting information on the initial approach to a weight loss plan. Which action should the nurse recommend first?

• A. Plan low-carbohydrate and high-protein meals
• B. Engage in moderate physical activity for an hour daily
• C. Keep a record of food and drinks consumed daily
• D. Participate in a group exercise class 3 times a week

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A BMI of 30 indicates the patient is obese. The first step in a weight loss plan should be to keep a food journal to track calorie intake, which can help in meal planning and creating a workout routine. Choice (A) suggests a dietary approach, which is important but not the first step. Choice (B) recommends strenuous activity, which may not be suitable for everyone and is not the initial step. Choice (D) involves group exercise, which can be beneficial but is not the primary action to take at the beginning of a weight loss plan.

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