Nursing Elites

1. A patient is admitted for hypovolemia associated with multiple draining wounds. Which assessment would be the most accurate way for the nurse to evaluate fluid balance?

• A. Skin turgor
• B. Daily weight
• C. Presence of edema
• D. Hourly urine output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Daily weight is the most easily obtained and accurate means of assessing volume status. Skin turgor varies considerably with age and can be affected by various factors other than fluid balance. Presence of edema indicates excess fluid has moved into the interstitial space, which may not always be directly correlated with overall fluid balance. Hourly urine outputs, though important, do not provide a comprehensive picture of fluid balance as they do not consider fluid intake, insensible losses, or other sources of fluid loss.

2. A patient who has been receiving diuretic therapy is admitted to the emergency department with a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. The nurse should alert the healthcare provider immediately that the patient is on which medication?

• A. Oral digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg daily
• B. Ibuprofen (Motrin) 400 mg every 6 hours
• C. Metoprolol (Lopressor) 12.5 mg orally daily
• D. Lantus insulin 24 U subcutaneously every evening

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Hypokalemia increases the risk for digoxin toxicity, which can lead to serious dysrhythmias. Therefore, with a low potassium level, the nurse should immediately alert the healthcare provider about the patient being on oral digoxin. Choices B, C, and D do not pose as much concern with the given potassium level. However, further assessment is still required for these medications.

3. A patient receives 3% NaCl solution for correction of hyponatremia. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to monitor while the patient is receiving this infusion?

• A. Lung sounds
• B. Urinary output
• C. Peripheral pulses
• D. Peripheral edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lung sounds. Hypertonic solutions like 3% NaCl can cause water retention, leading to fluid excess. Monitoring lung sounds is crucial as crackles may indicate pulmonary edema, a serious manifestation of fluid excess. While monitoring urinary output, peripheral pulses, and peripheral edema are also important when administering hypertonic solutions, they do not provide immediate clues to acute respiratory or cardiac decompensation like lung sounds.

4. When caring for a patient with renal failure on a low phosphate diet, the nurse will inform unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to remove which food from the patient’s food tray?

• A. Grape juice
• B. Milk carton
• C. Mixed green salad
• D. Fried chicken breast

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Milk carton. Foods high in phosphate, like milk and other dairy products, are restricted on low-phosphate diets to manage renal failure. Green, leafy vegetables, high-fat foods, and fruits/juices are not high in phosphate and are not restricted. Therefore, grape juice, mixed green salad, and fried chicken breast do not need to be removed from the patient's food tray.

5. IV potassium chloride (KCl) 60 mEq is prescribed for the treatment of a patient with severe hypokalemia. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the KCl as a rapid IV bolus.
• B. Infuse the KCl at a rate of 10 mEq/hour.
• C. Only give the KCl through a central venous line.
• D. Discontinue cardiac monitoring during the infusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to infuse the KCl at a rate of 10 mEq/hour. Rapid IV infusion of KCl can lead to cardiac arrest due to its potential for causing hyperkalemia. While KCl can be administered through peripheral veins, central venous lines are not necessary unless specified. It is crucial to continue cardiac monitoring during potassium infusion to promptly identify and manage any potential dysrhythmias that may occur.

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