Nursing Elites

1. A nursing student needs to administer potassium chloride intravenously as prescribed to a client with hypokalemia. The nursing instructor determines that the student is unprepared for this procedure if the student states that which of the following is part of the plan for preparation and administration of the potassium?

• A. Obtaining a controlled IV infusion pump
• B. Monitoring urine output during administration
• C. Diluting an appropriate amount of normal saline
• D. Preparing the medication for bolus administration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is preparing the medication for bolus administration (Choice D). Potassium should never be administered as a bolus because it can cause cardiac arrest. It must always be diluted and given slowly. Obtaining a controlled IV infusion pump (Choice A) is essential for accurate delivery, monitoring urine output during administration (Choice B) helps assess the client's response, and diluting an appropriate amount of normal saline (Choice C) is necessary to prevent irritation and ensure safe administration.

2. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:

• A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
• B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
• C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
• D. Felodipine (Plendil)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.

3. A client with hyperthyroidism is receiving radioactive iodine therapy. The nurse should monitor for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypothyroidism
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypothyroidism. Radioactive iodine therapy is used to treat hyperthyroidism by destroying thyroid tissue and reducing hormone production. This can lead to an underactive thyroid, resulting in hypothyroidism. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is an elevated potassium level, usually not associated with radioactive iodine therapy. Hyponatremia (choice C) is a low sodium level, which is also not a common side effect of this therapy. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is an elevated calcium level, unrelated to radioactive iodine therapy for hyperthyroidism.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of adrenal insufficiency. The nurse should monitor for which of the following signs of an Addisonian crisis?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Severe hypotension
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In an Addisonian crisis, there is a lack of adrenal hormones leading to severe hypotension. Hypertension (choice A) is not a typical sign of Addisonian crisis but can occur in conditions like pheochromocytoma. Hyperglycemia (choice B) is not a characteristic sign of an Addisonian crisis. Tachycardia (choice D) may occur as a compensatory mechanism in response to hypotension, but severe bradycardia is more common in an Addisonian crisis.

5. Which outcome indicates that treatment of a male client with diabetes insipidus has been effective?

• A. Fluid intake is less than 2,500 ml/day
• B. Urine output measures more than 200 ml/hour
• C. Blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg
• D. The heart rate is 126 beats/minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct outcome indicating effective treatment of diabetes insipidus in a male client is a fluid intake of less than 2,500 ml/day. In diabetes insipidus, excessive urination causes increased fluid intake to compensate for the fluid loss. By effectively managing the condition, the client's fluid intake should decrease. Choices B, C, and D do not directly reflect the effectiveness of treatment for diabetes insipidus. Increased urine output (choice B) may indicate inadequate control of the condition, while low blood pressure (choice C) and a high heart rate (choice D) are not specific indicators of effective treatment for diabetes insipidus.

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