Nursing Elites

1. A nursing student needs to administer potassium chloride intravenously as prescribed to a client with hypokalemia. The nursing instructor determines that the student is unprepared for this procedure if the student states that which of the following is part of the plan for preparation and administration of the potassium?

• A. Obtaining a controlled IV infusion pump
• B. Monitoring urine output during administration
• C. Diluting an appropriate amount of normal saline
• D. Preparing the medication for bolus administration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is preparing the medication for bolus administration (Choice D). Potassium should never be administered as a bolus because it can cause cardiac arrest. It must always be diluted and given slowly. Obtaining a controlled IV infusion pump (Choice A) is essential for accurate delivery, monitoring urine output during administration (Choice B) helps assess the client's response, and diluting an appropriate amount of normal saline (Choice C) is necessary to prevent irritation and ensure safe administration.

2. A client is taking NPH insulin daily every morning. The nurse instructs the client that the most likely time for a hypoglycemic reaction to occur is:

• A. 2-4 hours after administration
• B. 6-14 hours after administration
• C. 16-18 hours after administration
• D. 18-24 hours after administration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 6-14 hours after administration. NPH insulin has an onset of action within 1-2 hours, a peak action at 6-14 hours, and a duration of action of 16-24 hours. The peak action period, which is when the risk of hypoglycemia is highest, falls between 6-14 hours after administration. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical action profile of NPH insulin.

3. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following interventions should the healthcare provider include in the care plan?

• A. Encourage oral fluids
• B. Restrict fluid intake
• C. Administer potassium supplements
• D. Increase sodium intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with SIADH is to restrict fluid intake. SIADH leads to water retention and dilution of sodium levels in the body, resulting in hyponatremia. Restricting fluid intake helps prevent further dilutional hyponatremia. Encouraging oral fluids (Choice A) would exacerbate the condition by further increasing fluid retention. Administering potassium supplements (Choice C) is not directly related to managing SIADH. Increasing sodium intake (Choice D) is contraindicated because it can worsen hyponatremia in clients with SIADH.

4. A female client with Cushing's syndrome is admitted to the medical-surgical unit. During the admission assessment, Nurse Tyzz notes that the client is agitated, irritable, has poor memory, reports loss of appetite, and appears disheveled. These findings are consistent with which problem?

• A. Depression
• B. Neuropathy
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Depression. Depression is a common psychological manifestation in clients with Cushing's syndrome. In this scenario, the client's symptoms of agitation, irritability, poor memory, loss of appetite, and disheveled appearance are indicative of depressive symptoms rather than neuropathy, hypoglycemia, or hyperthyroidism. Neuropathy typically presents with sensory changes and motor deficits, which are not described in the scenario. Hypoglycemia would manifest with symptoms such as diaphoresis, tremors, and confusion, which are not mentioned. Hyperthyroidism symptoms include weight loss, heat intolerance, and palpitations, which are not consistent with the client's presentation.

5. Nurse Noemi administers glucagon to her diabetic client and then monitors the client for adverse drug reactions and interactions. Which type of drug interacts adversely with glucagon?

• A. Oral anticoagulants
• B. Anabolic steroids
• C. Beta-adrenergic blockers
• D. Thiazide diuretics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oral anticoagulants. Glucagon may enhance the anticoagulant effect of oral anticoagulants, increasing the risk of bleeding. This interaction can be dangerous for the patient, leading to serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because anabolic steroids, beta-adrenergic blockers, and thiazide diuretics do not typically interact adversely with glucagon. It is crucial for healthcare providers to be aware of potential drug interactions to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.

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