Nursing Elites

1. A patient on the labor and delivery unit is having induction of labor with oxytocin administered through a secondary IV line. Uterine contractions occur every 2 minutes, last 90 seconds, and are strong to palpation. The baseline fetal heart rate is 150/min, with uniform decelerations beginning at the peak of the contraction and a return to baseline after the contraction is over. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Decrease the rate of infusion of the maintenance IV solution.
• B. Discontinue the infusion of the IV oxytocin.
• C. Increase the rate of infusion of the IV oxytocin.
• D. Slow the client's breathing rate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The described pattern suggests late decelerations, indicating uteroplacental insufficiency. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion helps reduce uterine contractions, improving placental blood flow and fetal oxygenation. This intervention is essential to prevent fetal compromise and potential harm during labor. Choice A is incorrect because decreasing the rate of the maintenance IV solution does not directly address the cause of the late decelerations. Choice C is incorrect because increasing the rate of IV oxytocin can worsen uterine contractions, exacerbating the fetal distress. Choice D is incorrect because slowing the client's breathing rate is not indicated in the management of late decelerations during labor.

2. A client who is pregnant states that her last menstrual period was April 1st. What is the client's estimated date of delivery?

• A. January 8
• B. January 15
• C. February 8
• D. February 15

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the estimated date of delivery, add 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period (April 1st), which gives April 8th. Then, count forward 9 months from April 8th, leading to January 8th as the estimated date of delivery. Choice A is correct. Choice B is incorrect because it is exactly 9 months from the last menstrual period without accounting for the additional 7 days. Choices C and D are incorrect as they fall in February, which is beyond the 9-month period from the last menstrual period.

3. A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with her first pregnancy asks the nurse when she can expect to experience quickening. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. This will occur during the last trimester of pregnancy.
• B. This will happen by the end of the first trimester of pregnancy.
• C. This will occur between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy.
• D. This will happen once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Quickening, which is the first perception of fetal movements by the mother, typically occurs between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy, around 18-20 weeks of gestation. Choice C is correct as it provides the client with accurate information about the expected timing of this significant milestone in her pregnancy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because quickening does not happen during the last trimester, by the end of the first trimester, or once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis. The correct timeframe for quickening is during the second trimester, specifically between the fourth and fifth months.

4. During a Leopold maneuver, a healthcare professional determines that the fetus is in an RSA position. Which fetal presentation should be documented in the client's medical record?

• A. Vertex
• B. Shoulder
• C. Breech
• D. Mentum

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Breech." The RSA position indicates that the fetus is in a breech presentation. In a breech presentation, the buttocks or feet are positioned to be delivered first, which can impact the mode of delivery and require close monitoring during labor and birth. Choice A (Vertex) refers to the head-first presentation, which is considered the normal and most common presentation for birth. Choice B (Shoulder) does not represent a specific fetal presentation. Choice D (Mentum) refers to the chin presentation, which is also not relevant in this scenario.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer vitamin K by IM injection to a newborn. The medication should be administered into which of the following muscles?

• A. Vastus lateralis
• B. Ventrogluteal
• C. Dorsogluteal
• D. Deltoid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Vitamin K is typically administered in the vastus lateralis muscle of a newborn to prevent bleeding disorders. The vastus lateralis muscle is the preferred site for IM injections in infants due to its size and accessibility, allowing for easy and safe administration. The ventrogluteal and dorsogluteal sites are more commonly used in adults due to better muscle mass and less risk of injury to nearby structures. The deltoid muscle is typically used for older children and adults for IM injections, as it is a well-developed muscle suitable for injections in these populations.

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