a nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who reports abrupt sharp right sided lower quadrant abdominal pain and bright red vaginal b
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam

1. A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who reports abrupt, sharp, right-sided lower quadrant abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding. The client states, 'I missed one menstrual cycle and cannot be pregnant because I have an intrauterine device.' The nurse should suspect which of the following?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ectopic pregnancy should be suspected in clients with abrupt, sharp, right-sided lower quadrant abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding, especially if they have an intrauterine device (IUD). In this case, the client's symptoms are classic for ectopic pregnancy, where the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, commonly in the fallopian tube. Missed abortion (choice A) refers to a nonviable embryo or fetus in the uterus, which is not consistent with the client's presentation. Severe preeclampsia (choice C) is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, not the symptoms described. Hydatidiform mole (choice D) presents with vaginal bleeding but typically lacks abdominal pain and is not related to the presence of an IUD.

2. A charge nurse on the postpartum unit is observing a newly licensed nurse who is preparing to administer pain medication to a client. The charge nurse should intervene when the newly licensed nurse uses which of the following secondary identifiers to identify the client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Using the client's room number as a secondary identifier is not an appropriate method for client identification in healthcare settings. It can lead to confusion and potential errors, especially in a busy environment like a postpartum unit. Room numbers are not unique to individual patients and can change frequently. Instead, healthcare providers should use more reliable and specific identifiers like the client's name, medical record number, or date of birth to ensure accurate identification and safe administration of medications. Choices B, C, and D are more appropriate secondary identifiers for client identification as they are more specific and less prone to errors than room numbers.

3. During a Leopold maneuver, a healthcare professional determines that the fetus is in an RSA position. Which fetal presentation should be documented in the client's medical record?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Breech." The RSA position indicates that the fetus is in a breech presentation. In a breech presentation, the buttocks or feet are positioned to be delivered first, which can impact the mode of delivery and require close monitoring during labor and birth. Choice A (Vertex) refers to the head-first presentation, which is considered the normal and most common presentation for birth. Choice B (Shoulder) does not represent a specific fetal presentation. Choice D (Mentum) refers to the chin presentation, which is also not relevant in this scenario.

4. When assessing newborn reflexes, what action should be taken to elicit the Moro reflex?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform a sharp hand clap near the infant. The Moro reflex, also known as the startle reflex, is elicited by a sudden stimuli such as a sharp hand clap near the infant. This reflex is characterized by the infant's arms extending and then flexing with a distinctive 'startle' motion. It is a normal and expected reflex in newborns, typically disappearing by 3-6 months of age. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not elicit the Moro reflex; holding the newborn vertically (choice B) or placing a finger at the base of the newborn's toes (choice C) are associated with other reflexes, while turning the newborn's head quickly to one side (choice D) is related to the tonic neck reflex.

5. A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about potential adverse effects of implantable progestins. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider include? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When educating a client about implantable progestins, it is important to discuss potential adverse effects. Nausea, irregular vaginal bleeding, and weight gain are common side effects associated with implantable progestins. Therefore, clients should be informed about these possibilities to ensure they are aware of what to expect and when to seek medical attention if needed. Choice D, 'All of the Above,' is the correct answer because all of the listed adverse effects (nausea, irregular vaginal bleeding, and weight gain) should be included in the client education. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they individually do not encompass all the potential adverse effects that the healthcare provider should discuss with the client.

Similar Questions

A healthcare provider is assessing fetal heart tones for a pregnant client. The provider has determined the fetal position as left occipital anterior. To which of the following areas of the client's abdomen should the provider apply the ultrasound transducer to assess the point of maximum intensity of the fetal heart?
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