Nursing Elites

1. A client who is at 15 weeks of gestation, is Rh-negative, and has just had an amniocentesis. Which of the following interventions is the nurse's priority following the procedure?

• A. Check the client's temperature.
• B. Observe for uterine contractions.
• C. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin.
• D. Monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After an amniocentesis, the priority nursing intervention is to monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR) as the greatest risk to the client and fetus is fetal death. This monitoring helps in early identification of any fetal distress or compromise, allowing prompt intervention to ensure fetal well-being. Checking the client's temperature (Choice A) is not the priority as monitoring the fetus is crucial for immediate assessment. Observing for uterine contractions (Choice B) is important but not the priority after an amniocentesis. Administering Rho(D) immune globulin (Choice C) is typically done to Rh-negative clients after procedures that may lead to fetal-maternal hemorrhage, not immediately after an amniocentesis.

2. A nurse is assisting with an in-service for newly licensed nurses about neonatal abstinence syndrome in newborns. Which of the following statements by a newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. The newborn will have decreased muscle tone.
• B. The newborn will have a continuous high-pitched cry.
• C. The newborn will sleep for 2 to 3 hours after a feeding.
• D. The newborn will have mild tremors when disturbed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A continuous high-pitched cry is a characteristic sign of neonatal abstinence syndrome, indicating withdrawal from drugs. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because decreased muscle tone, sleeping for 2 to 3 hours after a feeding, and mild tremors when disturbed are not specific indicators of neonatal abstinence syndrome.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who has a coarctation of the aorta. Which of the following should the provider recognize as a clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta?

• A. Increased blood pressure in the arms with decreased blood pressure in the legs
• B. Decreased blood pressure in the arms with increased blood pressure in the legs
• C. Increased blood pressure in both the arms and the legs
• D. Decreased blood pressure in both the arms and the legs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is increased blood pressure in the arms with decreased blood pressure in the legs. Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital heart defect characterized by a narrowing of the aorta, leading to increased blood pressure in the upper extremities and decreased blood pressure in the lower extremities due to decreased blood flow beyond the narrowing. Choice B is incorrect because coarctation of the aorta does not lead to increased blood pressure in the legs. Choice C is incorrect because increased blood pressure in both the arms and legs is not a typical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta. Choice D is incorrect because decreased blood pressure in both the arms and legs is not characteristic of coarctation of the aorta.

4. A client is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who has premature rupture of membranes at 26 weeks of gestation. Which of the following instructions should the client include?

• A. Use a condom with sexual intercourse
• B. Avoid bubble bath solution when taking a tub bath
• C. Wipe from front to back when performing perineal hygiene
• D. Keep a daily record of fetal kick counts

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Keeping a daily record of fetal kick counts is crucial for clients with premature rupture of membranes at 26 weeks of gestation as it helps monitor fetal well-being. This activity enables the client to assess the frequency and strength of fetal movements, which can provide important information about the fetus' health and development. Other options such as using a condom with sexual intercourse, avoiding bubble bath solution, and wiping from front to back are important for general perinatal care but are not specifically related to managing premature rupture of membranes.

5. A client in labor requests epidural anesthesia for pain control. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Position the client supine for 30 minutes after the first dose of anesthetic solution.
• B. Administer 1,000 mL of dextrose 5% in water after the first dose of anesthetic solution.
• C. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 5 minutes after the first dose of anesthetic solution.
• D. Ensure the client has been NPO for 4 hours before the placement of the epidural and the first dose of anesthetic solution.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action is to monitor the client's blood pressure every 5 to 10 minutes following the first dose of anesthetic solution to assess for maternal hypotension. This is crucial to detect and manage potential complications associated with the epidural anesthesia. Positioning the client supine for a prolonged period can lead to hypotension; administering dextrose solution is not a standard practice in epidural anesthesia; ensuring NPO status for 4 hours is not necessary before epidural placement.

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