Nursing Elites

1. A client who is at 15 weeks of gestation, is Rh-negative, and has just had an amniocentesis. Which of the following interventions is the nurse's priority following the procedure?

• A. Check the client's temperature.
• B. Observe for uterine contractions.
• C. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin.
• D. Monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After an amniocentesis, the priority nursing intervention is to monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR) as the greatest risk to the client and fetus is fetal death. This monitoring helps in early identification of any fetal distress or compromise, allowing prompt intervention to ensure fetal well-being. Checking the client's temperature (Choice A) is not the priority as monitoring the fetus is crucial for immediate assessment. Observing for uterine contractions (Choice B) is important but not the priority after an amniocentesis. Administering Rho(D) immune globulin (Choice C) is typically done to Rh-negative clients after procedures that may lead to fetal-maternal hemorrhage, not immediately after an amniocentesis.

2. A client is in labor, and a nurse observes late decelerations on the electronic fetal monitor. What should the nurse identify as the first action that the registered nurse should take?

• A. Assist the client into the left-lateral position
• B. Apply a fetal scalp electrode
• C. Insert an IV catheter
• D. Perform a vaginal exam

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. The initial action should be to assist the client into the left-lateral position to optimize maternal blood flow and oxygenation to the fetus, thereby improving uteroplacental blood flow and fetal oxygenation. This position helps reduce pressure on the vena cava, enhancing blood return to the heart and improving circulation to the placenta. Applying a fetal scalp electrode (Choice B) is not the first action indicated for late decelerations. Inserting an IV catheter (Choice C) and performing a vaginal exam (Choice D) are not primary interventions for addressing late decelerations related to uteroplacental insufficiency.

3. A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is receiving dietary teaching. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will eat foods that appeal to my taste instead of trying to balance my meals.
• B. I will avoid having a snack at bedtime.
• C. I will have 8 ounces of hot tea with each meal.
• D. I will pair my sweets with a starch instead of eating them alone.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hyperemesis gravidarum, where there is severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, it is essential for the client to eat foods that appeal to their taste to prevent further nausea. Balancing meals may not be a priority initially if the client is struggling to keep any food down. Choice B is unrelated to managing hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice C, having hot tea with each meal, may not necessarily address the issue of taste preferences. Choice D, pairing sweets with a starch, is not as relevant as choosing foods appealing to taste for managing hyperemesis gravidarum.

4. A pregnant client is learning about Kegel exercises in the third trimester. Which statement signifies understanding of the teaching?

• A. These exercises facilitate preventing constipation.
• B. These exercises aid pelvic muscle stretching during birth.
• C. They assist in decreasing backaches.
• D. They can prevent additional stretch marks.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Kegel exercises are beneficial during pregnancy to help strengthen pelvic muscles, which is crucial for childbirth. Pelvic muscle stretching during birth is a key aspect of labor, making choice B the correct statement indicating understanding of the teaching. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Kegel exercises primarily focus on strengthening pelvic floor muscles to support the uterus, bladder, and bowel, aiding in labor and delivery. They are not directly related to preventing constipation, decreasing backaches, or preventing stretch marks.

5. A client who is 2 days postpartum reports that their 4-year-old son, who was previously toilet trained, is now wetting himself frequently. Which of the following statements should the nurse provide to the client?

• A. Your son may not have been ready for toilet training and should wear training pants.
• B. Your son is displaying an adverse sibling response.
• C. Your son may benefit from counseling.
• D. Consider enrolling your son in preschool to address the behavior.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The regression in toilet training is a common adverse sibling response to the birth of a new baby. When a new sibling arrives, the older child may revert to behaviors from an earlier stage, such as bedwetting, to gain attention or cope with feelings of insecurity. This behavior is temporary and often resolves with time and reassurance. Recommending counseling or preschool at this point would be premature and not addressing the underlying cause of the behavior.

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