Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer magnesium sulfate 2 g/hr IV to a client who is in preterm labor. Available is 20 g of magnesium sulfate in 500 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W). How many mL/hr should the IV infusion pump be set to administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

• A. 60
• B. 30
• C. 50
• D. 80

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To administer magnesium sulfate 2 g/hr IV, the healthcare professional should set the IV infusion pump to administer 50 mL/hr. The calculation is as follows: 20 g / 500 mL = 2 g / X mL, X = 50 mL/hr. Choice A (60 mL/hr) is incorrect as it does not match the calculated rate. Choice B (30 mL/hr) is incorrect as it is half of the calculated rate. Choice D (80 mL/hr) is incorrect as it is higher than the calculated rate.

2. When caring for a client receiving nifedipine for prevention of preterm labor, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations?

• A. Blood-tinged sputum
• B. Dizziness
• C. Pallor
• D. Somnolence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Question: When caring for a client receiving nifedipine for prevention of preterm labor, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations? Rationale: Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, causes vasodilation, potentially leading to a decrease in blood pressure and side effects such as dizziness. Monitoring for dizziness is essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being during treatment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with nifedipine use for preventing preterm labor. Blood-tinged sputum may indicate other conditions like pulmonary issues, pallor could suggest anemia or circulatory problems, and somnolence is not a common side effect of nifedipine.

3. A healthcare professional in the emergency department is caring for a client who presents with severe abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant. The provider suspects a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following signs indicates to the healthcare professional that the client has blood in the peritoneum?

• A. Chvostek's sign
• B. Cullen's sign
• C. Chadwick's sign
• D. Goodell's sign

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cullen's sign, which presents as bruising around the umbilicus, indicates the presence of blood in the peritoneum. This sign is significant in cases of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy as it suggests intraperitoneal bleeding, prompting immediate medical attention. Chvostek's sign is related to facial muscle spasm and is not indicative of peritoneal bleeding. Chadwick's sign refers to a bluish discoloration of the cervix and vagina during pregnancy, not related to peritoneal bleeding. Goodell's sign is a softening of the cervix, which is a sign of pregnancy, and not specific to peritoneal bleeding.

4. A client at 32 weeks of gestation with placenta previa is actively bleeding. Which medication should the provider likely prescribe?

• A. Betamethasone
• B. Indomethacin
• C. Nifedipine
• D. Methylergonovine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cases of placenta previa with active bleeding at 32 weeks of gestation, Betamethasone is prescribed to accelerate fetal lung maturity in anticipation of potential preterm delivery. This medication helps in reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn, which is crucial in managing such high-risk pregnancies. Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug not indicated in this scenario and may be contraindicated due to its effects on platelet function and potential risk of bleeding. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like preterm labor or hypertension, not specifically for placenta previa with active bleeding. Methylergonovine is a uterotonic drug used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage, not indicated for placenta previa with active bleeding.

5. A healthcare provider is discussing the differences between true labor and false labor with a group of expectant parents. Which of the following characteristics should the healthcare provider include when discussing true labor?

• A. Contractions become stronger with walking.
• B. Discomfort can be relieved with a back massage.
• C. Contractions become irregular with a change in activity.
• D. Discomfort is felt above the umbilicus.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During true labor, contractions typically become stronger and more regular with activity, such as walking. This is a key characteristic that helps differentiate true labor from false labor. In false labor, contractions often remain irregular and do not intensify with changes in activity. Choice B is incorrect because discomfort in true labor is not typically relieved with a back massage. Choice C is incorrect as contractions in true labor become stronger and more regular with activity rather than irregular. Choice D is incorrect because discomfort in true labor is usually felt in the lower abdomen and pelvis, not above the umbilicus.

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