ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about the physiological changes that occur during pregnancy. The client is at 10 weeks of gestation and has a BMI within the expected reference range. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should gain more than 15 to 20 pounds during my pregnancy.
- B. I will likely need to use alternative positions for sexual intercourse.
- C. I'm glad I had a breast reduction years ago so they will not enlarge with my pregnancy.
- D. I'm glad I have a light complexion and will not get any stretch marks.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During pregnancy, weight gain is expected. The client's understanding is demonstrated by acknowledging the need for alternative sexual positions due to the physiological changes, such as weight gain and a growing abdomen. This statement reflects comprehension of the teaching provided by the healthcare provider.
2. A nurse is caring for a preterm newborn who is in an incubator to maintain a neutral thermal environment. The father of the newborn asks the nurse why this is necessary. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. Preterm newborns have a smaller body surface area than normal newborns.
- B. The added brown fat layer in a preterm newborn reduces his ability to generate heat.
- C. Preterm newborns lack adequate temperature control mechanisms.
- D. The heat in the incubator rapidly dries the sweat of preterm newborns.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because preterm newborns have immature temperature regulation mechanisms, making it difficult for them to maintain their body temperature. An incubator helps maintain a stable thermal environment. Choice A is incorrect as the body surface area is not the primary reason for needing an incubator. Choice B is incorrect because brown fat in preterm newborns actually helps generate heat. Choice D is incorrect as the purpose of the incubator is not to dry sweat but to regulate the newborn's temperature.
3. A nurse at an antepartum clinic is caring for a client who is at 4 months of gestation. The client reports continued nausea, vomiting, and scant, prune-colored discharge. The client has experienced no weight loss and has a fundal height larger than expected. Which of the following complications should the nurse suspect?
- A. Hyperemesis gravidarum
- B. Threatened abortion
- C. Hydatidiform mole
- D. Preterm labor
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of continued nausea, vomiting, scant prune-colored discharge, and a fundal height larger than expected at 4 months of gestation suggest a possible hydatidiform mole. Hyperemesis gravidarum (choice A) typically presents with severe nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and electrolyte imbalances. Threatened abortion (choice B) is characterized by vaginal bleeding with or without cramping but does not typically present with prune-colored discharge. Preterm labor (choice D) manifests with regular uterine contractions leading to cervical changes and can occur later in pregnancy.
4. A client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and is in active labor has fetal heart tones located above the umbilicus at midline. The fetus is likely in which of the following positions?
- A. Cephalic
- B. Transverse
- C. Posterior
- D. Frank breech
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Fetal heart tones above the umbilicus at midline are indicative of a breech presentation, specifically a frank breech position. In a frank breech position, the baby's buttocks are presenting first, which aligns with the fetal heart tones being above the umbilicus. This position indicates that the baby is not in the normal head-down position for birth, which can impact the delivery process and may require specific interventions. Cephalic presentation (Choice A) is the normal head-down position for birth, transverse lie (Choice B) is when the baby is positioned horizontally in the uterus, and posterior position (Choice C) refers to the baby's back being positioned towards the mother's back.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer prophylactic eye ointment to a newborn to prevent ophthalmia neonatorum. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional anticipate administering?
- A. Ofloxacin
- B. Nystatin
- C. Erythromycin
- D. Ceftriaxone
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Erythromycin eye ointment is the medication of choice for preventing ophthalmia neonatorum, an eye infection in newborns caused by exposure to gonorrhea or chlamydia during birth. Erythromycin helps prevent the transmission of these bacteria from the mother to the baby during delivery, protecting the newborn's eyes from potential infection. Ofloxacin, Nystatin, and Ceftriaxone are not indicated for preventing ophthalmia neonatorum. Ofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic used for treating eye infections in adults, Nystatin is an antifungal medication used for fungal infections, and Ceftriaxone is a cephalosporin antibiotic used for various bacterial infections, but not for preventing ophthalmia neonatorum.
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