ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam
1. A client in an obstetrical clinic is discussing using an IUD for contraception with a healthcare provider. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. An IUD should be replaced annually during a pelvic exam.
- B. I cannot get an IUD until after I've had a child.
- C. I should plan on regaining fertility 5 months after the IUD is removed.
- D. I will check to ensure the strings of the IUD are still present after my periods.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Checking for the presence of IUD strings after each period is crucial to ensure the IUD is correctly positioned and functioning. This practice helps in confirming the effectiveness of the contraceptive method and timely detection of any displacement or issues with the IUD. Choice A is incorrect as IUDs have varying durations of effectiveness, but they do not need to be replaced annually as a routine. Choice B is incorrect as women can get an IUD even if they haven't had a child. Choice C is incorrect as fertility typically returns shortly after IUD removal, not necessarily after a specific timeframe like 5 months.
2. A healthcare provider is reinforcing teaching with a client about a new prescription for medroxyprogesterone. Which of the following information should the provider include in the teaching? (Select all that apply)
- A. Weight fluctuations can occur.
- B. Irregular vaginal spotting can occur.
- C. You should increase your intake of calcium.
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When educating a client about medroxyprogesterone, it is important to include information about potential side effects and recommendations. Weight fluctuations and irregular vaginal spotting are common side effects of medroxyprogesterone. Additionally, increasing calcium intake is often advised to counteract the potential bone density loss associated with this medication. Therefore, all the statements provided are correct, making option D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are all essential pieces of information that the healthcare provider should convey to the client regarding medroxyprogesterone.
3. A client who is 12 hours postpartum has a fundus located two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus, deviated to the right of the midline, and less firm than previously noted. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Place the client in a side-lying position.
- B. Assist the client to the bathroom to void.
- C. Obtain a prescription for IV oxytocin.
- D. Administer methylergonovine.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the client's fundus findings indicate a distended bladder, which can lead to uterine atony. Assisting the client to the bathroom to void is essential as a distended bladder can inhibit the uterus from contracting normally. This action can help the uterus contract effectively and prevent complications such as postpartum hemorrhage. Placing the client in a side-lying position, obtaining a prescription for IV oxytocin, or administering methylergonovine are not the priority actions in this situation. Placing the client in a side-lying position might be indicated for fundal displacement, but it is not the priority here. Obtaining a prescription for IV oxytocin and administering methylergonovine are interventions for managing uterine atony, which is not the primary issue in this case; the priority is addressing the distended bladder.
4. A client in labor is having contractions 4 minutes apart. Which of the following patterns should the nurse expect on the fetal monitoring tracing?
- A. Contractions that last for 60 seconds each with a 4-minute rest between contractions
- B. A contraction that lasts 4 minutes followed by a period of relaxation
- C. Contractions that last for 60 seconds each with a 3-minute rest between contractions
- D. Contractions that last 45 seconds each with a 3-minute rest between contractions
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When contractions are 4 minutes apart, it means there are 4 minutes from the start of one contraction to the start of the next. If each contraction lasts 60 seconds, there will be a 3-minute rest period between contractions. This allows for adequate uterine relaxation and recovery before the next contraction begins. Choice A is incorrect because it suggests a 4-minute rest between contractions, which is not accurate. Choice B is incorrect as contractions lasting 4 minutes continuously without rest would be concerning. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests 45-second contractions instead of 60-second contractions.
5. During a nonstress test for a pregnant client, a nurse uses an acoustic vibration device. The client inquires about its purpose. Which response should the nurse provide?
- A. It is used to stimulate uterine contractions.
- B. It will decrease the incidence of uterine contractions.
- C. It lulls the fetus to sleep.
- D. It awakens a sleeping fetus.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The acoustic vibration device is utilized during a nonstress test to awaken a sleeping fetus. This action helps ensure more accurate test results by eliciting fetal movements and heart rate accelerations, which are indicators of fetal well-being. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the primary purpose of the acoustic vibration device during a nonstress test is not to stimulate uterine contractions, decrease uterine contractions, or lull the fetus to sleep. Instead, it is specifically used to awaken a sleeping fetus to assess fetal well-being.
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