Nursing Elites

1. A client with lactose intolerance is being taught about dietary management by a nurse. Which statement by the client shows an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should avoid foods that contain lactose.
• B. I should increase my intake of dairy products.
• C. I should avoid foods that contain gluten.
• D. I should increase my intake of high-fiber foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I should avoid foods that contain lactose.' Lactose intolerance results from the inability to digest lactose, a sugar found in dairy products. Avoiding foods that contain lactose is essential in managing symptoms like bloating, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. Choice B is incorrect because increasing dairy intake would worsen symptoms. Choice C is incorrect because gluten is unrelated to lactose intolerance. Choice D is incorrect because high-fiber foods are beneficial for other conditions but do not specifically address lactose intolerance.

2. A client receives discharge teaching on a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• B. Take the medication with food.
• C. Increase your intake of salt.
• D. Take the medication at bedtime.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction that should be included when a client receives discharge teaching on a new prescription for lisinopril is to 'Avoid foods high in potassium.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia by reducing potassium excretion. Therefore, clients taking lisinopril should be advised to avoid foods high in potassium to prevent potential complications associated with elevated potassium levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking lisinopril with food, increasing salt intake, or taking the medication at bedtime are not specific instructions related to lisinopril therapy and may not be beneficial or necessary for the client's condition.

3. In an emergency department, a provider is assessing a client with an acute head injury following a motor-vehicle crash. Which of the following findings should be prioritized?

• A. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13
• B. Clear fluid leaking from the nose
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Anisocoria

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority finding is the clear fluid leaking from the nose, which could indicate a cerebrospinal fluid leak and potential brain injury. This requires immediate attention to assess for possible cerebrospinal fluid leak, which is a serious complication of head trauma and needs prompt intervention to prevent further complications. While a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 may indicate a mild alteration in consciousness, it is not as urgent as assessing for a cerebrospinal fluid leak. Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms after head injuries but do not take precedence over assessing for a potential cerebrospinal fluid leak. Anisocoria (unequal pupils) is also important to note but is not as urgent as identifying a possible cerebrospinal fluid leak in this scenario.

4. When assessing a client with diabetes mellitus experiencing DKA, which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Tremors
• B. Urine retention
• C. Kussmaul respirations
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Kussmaul respirations are a type of deep and labored breathing pattern associated with severe metabolic acidosis, commonly observed in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). In DKA, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, resulting in Kussmaul respirations. This helps eliminate excess carbon dioxide and reduce the acidity of the blood. Tremors (Choice A) are not typically associated with DKA. Urine retention (Choice B) is not a common finding in DKA; in fact, clients with DKA often have polyuria due to the osmotic diuresis caused by high blood glucose levels. Bradypnea (Choice D), which is abnormally slow breathing rate, is not a characteristic finding in DKA where the respiratory rate is usually increased to compensate for metabolic acidosis.

5. During an abdominal assessment, what is the correct sequence of steps for a healthcare provider to follow?

• A. Inspection, percussion, palpation, auscultation
• B. Percussion, auscultation, inspection, palpation
• C. Auscultation, palpation, inspection, percussion
• D. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During an abdominal assessment, the correct sequence of steps is inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation. This sequence is followed to prevent altering bowel sounds. Inspection allows for visual observation, followed by auscultation to listen for bowel sounds without causing disturbance, percussion to assess for tympany or dullness, and finally palpation to feel for any abnormalities or tenderness. Choice A is incorrect because palpation should come after percussion. Choice B is incorrect as auscultation should be performed after inspection. Choice C is incorrect because palpation should be the final step after percussion.

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