Nursing Elites

1. A client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will take my insulin only if my blood sugar is above 200 mg/dL.
• B. I will eat a snack before exercising.
• C. I will avoid all carbohydrates.
• D. I will check my blood sugar once a week.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Eating a snack before exercising is crucial for managing blood sugar levels and preventing hypoglycemia in individuals with diabetes. Exercising on an empty stomach can lead to low blood sugar levels, but consuming a snack before physical activity helps stabilize blood sugar and provides energy for the body. This proactive approach demonstrates the client's understanding of the importance of managing blood sugar levels during physical activity.

2. What is the primary goal of palliative care?

• A. To cure the client's illness.
• B. To prolong the client's life.
• C. To provide comfort and improve the quality of life.
• D. To prepare the client for surgery.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary goal of palliative care is to provide comfort and improve the quality of life for clients with serious illnesses. Palliative care aims to address physical, emotional, and spiritual needs to enhance overall well-being rather than focusing on curing the underlying illness, prolonging life, or preparing for surgery. It emphasizes symptom management, pain relief, and support for patients and their families to ensure a better quality of life during the course of their illness.

3. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has acute renal failure. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• B. Decreased creatinine
• C. Increased potassium
• D. Increased calcium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute renal failure, the kidneys are unable to excrete potassium efficiently, which can lead to hyperkalemia. As a result, an increased potassium level is a common finding in clients with acute renal failure. Hyperkalemia can have serious cardiac effects, making it essential for healthcare providers to monitor and manage potassium levels closely in clients with renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in acute renal failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels typically rise due to decreased renal function. Calcium levels are more likely to be decreased in acute renal failure due to impaired activation of vitamin D and subsequent decreased calcium absorption.

4. A client with hyperkalemia is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
• B. I should decrease my intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. I should increase my intake of sodium-rich foods.
• D. I should decrease my intake of sodium-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct! Hyperkalemia is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. To manage hyperkalemia, it is essential to decrease the intake of potassium-rich foods since excess potassium can worsen the condition. By understanding the need to decrease potassium-rich foods, the client shows comprehension of the dietary management required for hyperkalemia. Choice A is incorrect because increasing potassium-rich foods would exacerbate hyperkalemia. Choice C is incorrect since increasing sodium-rich foods is unrelated to managing hyperkalemia and could potentially lead to other health issues. Choice D is incorrect as decreasing sodium-rich foods is not the primary focus when managing hyperkalemia.

5. A client is receiving continuous enteral feedings. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Monitor intake and output every 8 hours.
• B. Flush the feeding tube every 4 hours.
• C. Measure the client's temperature every 24 hours.
• D. Change the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Flush the feeding tube every 4 hours. Flushing the feeding tube every 4 hours is essential to maintain patency and prevent clogging, ensuring the client receives the prescribed enteral nutrition without interruption. This intervention helps prevent complications such as tube occlusion. Monitoring intake and output is important for assessing the client's hydration status but does not directly address tube patency. Measuring the client's temperature is essential for monitoring for signs of infection but is not directly related to tube maintenance. Changing the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours is important for infection control but does not address tube patency.

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