Nursing Elites

1. A client with dysphagia and at risk for aspiration needs care planning. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Encourage the client to drink thickened liquids.
• B. Instruct the client to swallow with chin tucked.
• C. Provide the client with a cup with a lid.
• D. Place the client in Fowler's position for meals.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Placing the client in Fowler's position is crucial in preventing aspiration as it helps maintain an open airway and reduces the risk of food or liquid entering the lungs during swallowing. This position promotes safer swallowing and minimizes the chances of aspiration pneumonia. Choices A, B, and C are less effective interventions for preventing aspiration. Encouraging the client to drink thickened liquids may help, but the position is more critical. Instructing the client to swallow with chin tucked is beneficial for some individuals but not as effective as positioning. Providing a cup with a lid does not directly address the risk of aspiration associated with dysphagia.

2. A client with a new diagnosis of chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should be included in the teaching?

• A. Increase your intake of protein-rich foods.
• B. Decrease your intake of phosphorus-rich foods.
• C. Avoid foods that contain lactose.
• D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, decreasing the intake of phosphorus-rich foods is essential as impaired kidney function can lead to difficulty in excreting phosphorus, causing an imbalance. This can result in bone and heart complications. Therefore, educating the client to reduce phosphorus intake is crucial for managing the disease and preventing further complications. Option A is incorrect because excessive protein intake can burden the kidneys. Option C is not directly related to the management of chronic kidney disease. Option D is also incorrect as potassium intake may need to be limited in certain stages of kidney disease.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for a low-cholesterol diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

• A. Eggs
• B. Cheese
• C. Chicken breast
• D. Butter

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chicken breast is a suitable recommendation for a low-cholesterol diet as it is low in cholesterol. Eggs and cheese are high in cholesterol and not suitable for a low-cholesterol diet. Butter is also high in cholesterol and should be avoided in a low-cholesterol diet.

4. A client with diverticulitis is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should increase my intake of high-fiber foods.
• B. I should decrease my intake of high-fiber foods.
• C. I should increase my intake of high-fat foods.
• D. I should decrease my intake of high-fat foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Increasing intake of high-fiber foods is essential in managing diverticulitis as it helps prevent constipation and promotes bowel regularity, reducing the risk of complications and improving overall colon health. Choice B is incorrect because decreasing high-fiber foods can worsen diverticulitis symptoms. Choices C and D are also incorrect as increasing high-fat foods can exacerbate diverticulitis, while decreasing high-fat foods is generally recommended to manage the condition.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has anemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Pallor.
• C. Hypertension.
• D. Jaundice.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pallor is a common finding in clients with anemia due to decreased hemoglobin levels. Anemia leads to reduced oxygen-carrying capacity in the blood, resulting in pale skin and mucous membranes, which is known as pallor. Bradycardia, hypertension, and jaundice are typically not associated with anemia.

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