Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new diagnosis of hyperkalemia and is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider on dietary management. Which of the following statements should the healthcare provider include in the teaching?

• A. You should increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• B. You should decrease your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. You should avoid foods that contain lactose.
• D. You should increase your intake of dairy products.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'You should decrease your intake of potassium-rich foods.' Hyperkalemia is a condition characterized by excess potassium in the blood. To manage hyperkalemia effectively, it is crucial to reduce the intake of potassium-rich foods. This helps in lowering the overall potassium levels in the body and prevents complications associated with hyperkalemia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing the intake of potassium-rich foods (Choice A) would exacerbate hyperkalemia. Avoiding foods that contain lactose (Choice C) is not directly related to managing hyperkalemia. Increasing the intake of dairy products (Choice D) is not recommended as they can be a significant source of dietary potassium.

2. Following a total hip arthroplasty, what intervention should the healthcare provider implement for the client?

• A. Place a pillow between the client's legs.
• B. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
• C. Position the client on the operative side.
• D. Keep the client’s legs adducted.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing a pillow between the client's legs is crucial post hip arthroplasty surgery to prevent hip dislocation. This intervention helps maintain proper alignment and prevents legs from crossing midline, reducing the risk of hip prosthesis dislocation. Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees, positioning the client on the operative side, or keeping the client's legs adducted are not recommended postoperative interventions for a total hip arthroplasty, as they can increase the risk of complications and compromise the surgical site.

3. A client is being assessed for dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Elevated blood pressure
• B. Increased skin turgor
• C. Dark-colored urine
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dark-colored urine is a common sign of dehydration as the urine becomes concentrated. Dehydration leads to reduced fluid intake or excessive fluid loss, causing the urine to be darker in color due to increased urine concentration. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A) is not typically associated with dehydration; instead, dehydration often leads to low blood pressure. Increased skin turgor (Choice B) is actually a sign of good hydration, not dehydration. Bradypnea (Choice D), which refers to abnormally slow breathing, is not a common finding in dehydration.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. Which of the following injection sites should the healthcare provider select?

• A. Deltoid muscle
• B. Dorsogluteal muscle
• C. Vastus lateralis muscle
• D. Rectus femoris muscle

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The deltoid muscle is a common site for intramuscular injections in adults due to its accessibility and muscle mass. It is located in the upper arm and provides a sufficient area for injection. The deltoid muscle is preferred for administering vaccines and other medications that require IM administration. Choice B, the dorsogluteal muscle, is not recommended for intramuscular injections due to the proximity of major nerves and blood vessels in that area, which can lead to nerve damage or injury. Choice C, the vastus lateralis muscle, is more commonly used for infants and young children, while choice D, the rectus femoris muscle, is not typically used for intramuscular injections in adults.

5. A client is receiving continuous enteral feedings. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Monitor intake and output every 8 hours.
• B. Flush the feeding tube every 4 hours.
• C. Measure the client's temperature every 24 hours.
• D. Change the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Flush the feeding tube every 4 hours. Flushing the feeding tube every 4 hours is essential to maintain patency and prevent clogging, ensuring the client receives the prescribed enteral nutrition without interruption. This intervention helps prevent complications such as tube occlusion. Monitoring intake and output is important for assessing the client's hydration status but does not directly address tube patency. Measuring the client's temperature is essential for monitoring for signs of infection but is not directly related to tube maintenance. Changing the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours is important for infection control but does not address tube patency.

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