Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of duloxetine. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It is an antidepressant medication
• B. It can cause weight gain
• C. Monitor for liver function
• D. It has no side effects

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Monitor for liver function.' Duloxetine is an antidepressant medication, not an antipsychotic, so choice A is incorrect. One of the common side effects of duloxetine is weight gain, making choice B incorrect. Choice D, stating that duloxetine has no side effects, is inaccurate as all medications have the potential for side effects. Monitoring liver function is crucial with duloxetine because it can impact liver function, emphasizing the importance of regular checks to ensure the client's safety.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with a history of heroin use who is intoxicated. Which finding should the nurse expect?

• A. Constricted pupils
• B. Dilated pupils
• C. Increased reflexes
• D. Elevated blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Constricted pupils. Constricted pupils are a classic sign of opioid intoxication, including heroin. Opioids like heroin cause the pupils to constrict due to their effect on the autonomic nervous system. Dilated pupils, increased reflexes, and elevated blood pressure are not typically associated with opioid intoxication but may be seen with other substances or conditions.

3. A nurse is caring for a client with a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Define the characteristics of the ulcer.

• A. Intact skin with nonblanchable redness (Stage 1)
• B. Full-thickness tissue loss with subQ damage (Stage 3)
• C. Partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and dermis
• D. Full-thickness tissue loss with damage to muscle or bone (Stage 4)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Stage 2 ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss with visible and superficial damage, which may appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. Choice A describes a Stage 1 pressure ulcer characterized by intact skin with nonblanchable redness. Choice B describes a Stage 3 pressure ulcer with full-thickness tissue loss and damage to the subcutaneous tissue. Choice D is indicative of a Stage 4 pressure ulcer, involving full-thickness tissue loss with damage extending to muscle or bone.

4. A client is in active labor and is receiving an epidural for pain relief. Which of the following should the nurse monitor as the priority?

• A. Fetal heart rate
• B. Client's blood pressure
• C. Client's respiratory rate
• D. Client's pain level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most common side effect of an epidural is hypotension, which can compromise placental perfusion. Monitoring the client's blood pressure is the priority to ensure maternal and fetal well-being. Fetal heart rate is important but monitoring the client's blood pressure takes precedence due to the risk of hypotension. Respiratory rate and pain level monitoring are also important but not the priority in this scenario.

5. A nurse is providing teaching about breastfeeding to a client who is postpartum. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Wash your nipples with soap after each feeding.
• B. Place your baby to your breast for 5 minutes every 4 hours.
• C. Ensure your newborn has at least six wet diapers per day.
• D. Give your newborn 30 mL of water between feedings.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Ensure your newborn has at least six wet diapers per day.' Six or more wet diapers per day is an indicator that the newborn is receiving adequate breast milk, making this an important part of breastfeeding education. Choice A is incorrect because washing nipples with soap after each feeding can lead to dryness and cracking. Choice B is incorrect as babies should nurse on demand rather than on a strict schedule of 5 minutes every 4 hours. Choice D is incorrect as giving water to a newborn between feedings is not recommended and can interfere with breastfeeding.

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