a nurse is preparing to administer total parenteral nutrition tpn to a client which of the following findings indicates a need to obtain a new bag of
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B

1. A nurse is preparing to administer total parenteral nutrition (TPN) to a client. Which of the following findings indicates a need to obtain a new bag of TPN before administering?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A TPN solution with an oily appearance and a layer of fat on top indicates that the solution is 'cracked' and should not be used as it may have separated or deteriorated. This finding suggests a need to obtain a new bag of TPN before administering. Options B, C, and D are normal aspects of TPN administration. Option B confirms the presence of essential components in the TPN solution, option C provides information about the preparation time, and option D ensures proper identification and matching of the TPN with the correct client.

2. A nurse is caring for a newborn diagnosed with necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC). Which of the following interventions should the nurse expect to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Measuring abdominal girth is crucial in monitoring for signs of abdominal distension, which is a key indicator of worsening necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC). It helps in assessing the progression of the condition. Positioning the newborn supine, as in choice C, can help relieve pressure on the abdomen but does not directly monitor the condition. Applying cold compresses, as in choice D, is not recommended for NEC as it can constrict blood vessels and potentially worsen the condition. Withholding oral feedings, as in choice A, is also important to rest the bowel and prevent further complications, but measuring abdominal girth is more directly related to monitoring the progression of NEC.

3. A nurse is caring for a client with a recent diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pyridostigmine is the drug of choice for treating myasthenia gravis because it enhances communication between nerves and muscles by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase. Methotrexate (choice A) is not indicated for myasthenia gravis but is used in conditions like rheumatoid arthritis. Baclofen (choice C) is a muscle relaxant used for conditions like spasticity. Atropine (choice D) is not typically used in myasthenia gravis as it can worsen muscle weakness.

4. A client with staphylococcus epidermidis is prescribed vancomycin. Identify the adverse effect associated with this antibiotic therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct adverse effect associated with vancomycin therapy is an infusion reaction, known as Red Man Syndrome. This reaction presents with rashes, flushing, tachycardia, and hypotension. It is essential to administer vancomycin over at least 60 minutes to prevent these symptoms. Hepatotoxicity, constipation, and immunosuppression are not commonly associated with vancomycin use. Ototoxicity and renal toxicity are significant risks with prolonged vancomycin therapy.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A pH of 7.32 indicates metabolic acidosis, which is a hallmark of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). In DKA, blood glucose levels are typically elevated, bicarbonate levels are often low, and there is a compensatory respiratory response leading to a decrease in PaCO2. Option A is incorrect because a blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL is within the normal range and not indicative of DKA. Option C is incorrect because an HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L is not typically seen in DKA where bicarbonate levels are usually lower. Option D is incorrect because a PaCO2 of 48 mm Hg would not be expected in DKA; it would typically be lower due to compensatory respiratory alkalosis.

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