ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A patient is receiving chemotherapy and reports nausea. Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse make?
- A. Eat foods served hot
- B. Drink liquids between meals
- C. Eat dry cereal
- D. Choose foods with a strong aroma
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient receiving chemotherapy and experiencing nausea is to suggest eating dry, bland foods like cereal. These types of foods are often better tolerated as they are less likely to trigger nausea compared to aromatic or hot foods. Drinking liquids between meals, as suggested in option B, can be helpful to prevent dehydration but may not specifically address the nausea. Eating foods with a strong aroma, as in option D, may actually worsen nausea in patients undergoing chemotherapy.
2. What is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infection in a healthcare setting?
- A. Hand hygiene
- B. Wearing personal protective equipment
- C. Sterilizing equipment
- D. Isolating infected patients
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hand hygiene is considered the most effective method to prevent the spread of infection in a healthcare setting. Proper hand hygiene, including washing hands with soap and water or using hand sanitizer, is crucial in reducing the transmission of pathogens from one person to another. While wearing personal protective equipment, sterilizing equipment, and isolating infected patients are also important infection control measures, they are not as universally effective as hand hygiene in preventing the spread of infections. Personal protective equipment can prevent contact with infectious materials, sterilizing equipment reduces the risk of contamination, and isolating infected patients helps prevent the spread of specific infections, but they are more targeted approaches compared to the broad and essential practice of hand hygiene.
3. A postpartum complication a client is at risk for is deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following factors is strongly associated with this postpartum complication?
- A. Cesarean birth
- B. Vaginal birth
- C. Anemia
- D. Multiparity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cesarean birth. Cesarean birth doubles the risk for deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) due to immobility and vascular changes associated with surgery. Other risk factors for DVT include smoking, obesity, and a history of thromboembolism. Vaginal birth, anemia, and multiparity are not strongly associated with an increased risk of deep-vein thrombosis postpartum. It is important to educate clients undergoing cesarean birth about the increased risk of DVT and measures to prevent it, such as early ambulation and the use of compression stockings.
4. Which enzyme is produced by the parotid gland?
- A. Salivary amylase
- B. Sucrase
- C. Maltase
- D. Lactase
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Salivary amylase. Salivary amylase is an enzyme produced by the parotid gland that initiates starch digestion in the mouth. It helps break down starch into maltose, a simpler sugar. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because sucrase, maltase, and lactase are enzymes involved in the digestion of disaccharides like sucrose, maltose, and lactose, respectively, in the small intestine, not in the saliva.
5. A client takes prednisone daily for the treatment of chronic asthma. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Hypertension
- C. Gastric ulcer formation
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gastric ulcer formation. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, increases the risk of gastric ulcer formation, especially with long-term use. While prednisone can also lead to hyperglycemia (choice A) and hypertension (choice B) as adverse effects, monitoring for gastric ulcer formation is a priority due to its association with corticosteroid therapy. Diarrhea (choice D) is not a common adverse effect of prednisone and is less likely compared to gastric ulcers.
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