a nurse is caring for a client receiving anticoagulation therapy which of the following should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz

1. A nurse is caring for a client receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When caring for a client receiving anticoagulation therapy, the nurse should monitor the INR levels. INR (International Normalized Ratio) reflects the blood's ability to clot properly. It is crucial to monitor INR levels to ensure the anticoagulation therapy is within the therapeutic range and to prevent bleeding complications. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice B) is more relevant for clients with diabetes or those on medications affecting blood sugar. Serum creatinine (Choice C) is typically monitored to assess kidney function. Liver function (Choice D) is assessed through tests like AST, ALT, and bilirubin levels, and it is more relevant for assessing liver health rather than monitoring anticoagulation therapy.

2. A nurse is completing an admission assessment for a client who has hearing loss. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when assessing a client with hearing loss is to use written communication. This method helps ensure effective communication and that the client understands the information being conveyed. Speaking loudly may not be helpful and can be perceived as rude. Avoiding eye contact can hinder communication and appear disrespectful. Using sign language without an interpreter may not be appropriate if the client does not understand sign language.

3. A nurse is providing teaching for a child who is prescribed ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Take with a glass of orange juice.' Ferrous sulfate should be taken with orange juice (vitamin C) to enhance the absorption of iron. Taking it with milk (choice A) is not recommended as calcium can interfere with iron absorption. Taking it at bedtime (choice C) or with meals (choice D) may lead to decreased absorption due to interactions with other food or medications.

4. A nurse is assessing a client for signs of heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Peripheral edema. Peripheral edema, the accumulation of fluid causing swelling in the extremities, is a classic sign of heart failure due to fluid overload. This occurs because the heart's reduced pumping efficiency leads to fluid backup in the circulatory system. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Decreased heart rate is not typically associated with heart failure; instead, tachycardia or an increased heart rate may be observed. Increased energy levels are not an expected finding in heart failure, as this condition often causes fatigue and weakness. Hyperglycemia is not a direct sign of heart failure; however, it can be present in individuals with uncontrolled diabetes or as a result of certain treatments, but it is not a specific indicator of heart failure.

5. A client is receiving IV moderate sedation with midazolam and has a respiratory rate of 9/min. What should the nurse do?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer flumazenil. Flumazenil is the reversal agent for midazolam, a benzodiazepine, and should be administered to counteract respiratory depression. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) could further compromise their breathing. Implementing positive pressure ventilation (choice B) is not indicated as the first step when dealing with respiratory depression due to sedation. Performing nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not appropriate in this situation where the client is experiencing respiratory depression due to medication sedation.

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