a nurse is caring for a client receiving anticoagulation therapy which of the following should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz

1. A nurse is caring for a client receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When caring for a client receiving anticoagulation therapy, the nurse should monitor the INR levels. INR (International Normalized Ratio) reflects the blood's ability to clot properly. It is crucial to monitor INR levels to ensure the anticoagulation therapy is within the therapeutic range and to prevent bleeding complications. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice B) is more relevant for clients with diabetes or those on medications affecting blood sugar. Serum creatinine (Choice C) is typically monitored to assess kidney function. Liver function (Choice D) is assessed through tests like AST, ALT, and bilirubin levels, and it is more relevant for assessing liver health rather than monitoring anticoagulation therapy.

2. A home health nurse is providing teaching to a patient who has a new diagnosis of a gastric ulcer and a new prescription for sucralfate oral suspension. What statement by the patient indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because sucralfate should be taken on an empty stomach, 1 hour before meals, and at bedtime to coat the ulcer and protect it from stomach acid. Choice A is incorrect because taking it with meals may reduce its effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect as it should not be taken right before bed. Choice D is incorrect as sucralfate should be taken regularly as prescribed, not just when symptoms occur.

3. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following findings indicates she is dehydrated?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 is indicative of dehydration as it reflects concentrated urine. Choice A is incorrect as a specific gravity of 1.020 is within the normal range. Choice C, decreased skin turgor, can be a sign of dehydration but is not as specific as urine specific gravity. Choice D, decreased heart rate, is not typically a direct indicator of dehydration.

4. A nurse is assessing a client with pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased respiratory rate. In pneumonia, the body tries to compensate for the reduced ability to oxygenate the blood by increasing the respiratory rate. This helps to improve oxygen exchange. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with pneumonia, as an increased heart rate is more common due to the stress on the body. Decreased temperature (Choice C) is not a typical finding in pneumonia, as infections usually cause a fever. Elevated blood pressure (Choice D) is not a common finding in pneumonia unless there are complications such as sepsis.

5. A nurse is performing a focused assessment on a client who has a history of COPD and is experiencing dyspnea. Which of the findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flaring of the nostrils indicates increased respiratory effort, common in clients with dyspnea due to COPD. In COPD, the airways are narrowed, causing difficulty in breathing, leading to increased work of breathing. Normal respiratory rate and clear lung sounds are less likely findings in a client with COPD experiencing dyspnea. Decreased work of breathing is not expected in this situation as COPD typically results in increased work of breathing.

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