a nurse is caring for a client receiving anticoagulation therapy which of the following should the nurse monitor
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PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz

1. A nurse is caring for a client receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When caring for a client receiving anticoagulation therapy, the nurse should monitor the INR levels. INR (International Normalized Ratio) reflects the blood's ability to clot properly. It is crucial to monitor INR levels to ensure the anticoagulation therapy is within the therapeutic range and to prevent bleeding complications. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice B) is more relevant for clients with diabetes or those on medications affecting blood sugar. Serum creatinine (Choice C) is typically monitored to assess kidney function. Liver function (Choice D) is assessed through tests like AST, ALT, and bilirubin levels, and it is more relevant for assessing liver health rather than monitoring anticoagulation therapy.

2. A nurse is reviewing dietary assessment findings for a client who is Jewish and observes kosher dietary practices. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect to find?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. According to kosher dietary laws, meat and dairy products cannot be consumed together. This practice stems from the prohibition in Jewish law against cooking a young animal in its mother's milk. Therefore, the nurse should expect to find that meat and dairy products are eaten separately. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Leavened bread is not eaten during Passover (Choice A), shellfish is not consumed in the kosher diet (Choice B), and fasting from meat does not occur during Hanukkah (Choice D).

3. A client with a new diagnosis of heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss, which may cause hypokalemia. Increasing potassium intake can help prevent this electrolyte imbalance. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent sleep disturbances due to increased urination. Choice C is incorrect because a decrease in urine output could indicate a problem and should be reported immediately. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is used to reduce swelling in the body, including the lower extremities, so expecting swelling is not appropriate.

4. A nurse providing dietary teaching for a client who is at 29 weeks of gestation and has phenylketonuria. Which of the following suggested foods should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with phenylketonuria (PKU) must adhere to a strict low-phenylalanine diet to prevent neurological damage. Foods high in phenylalanine such as peanut butter, wheat bread, chocolate chip cookies, milk, scrambled eggs, and cheddar cheese should be avoided. Sliced apples and red grapes are low in phenylalanine, making them safe choices for individuals with PKU. Choice A (peanut butter sandwich on wheat bread), Choice C (chocolate chip cookie with a glass of skim milk), and Choice D (scrambled egg with cheddar cheese) are all high in phenylalanine and should be avoided by individuals with PKU.

5. A client who is having suicidal thoughts tells the nurse, “It just doesn’t seem worth it anymore. Why not end my misery?” Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The appropriate response by the nurse is to ask about the client's plan to end their life. This question helps to assess the severity of the client's suicidal ideation and the immediacy of the risk, allowing the nurse to determine the appropriate level of intervention. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the immediate risk assessment needed in this situation.

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