Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. INR levels
• B. Blood glucose
• C. Serum creatinine
• D. Liver function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When caring for a client receiving anticoagulation therapy, the nurse should monitor the INR levels. INR (International Normalized Ratio) reflects the blood's ability to clot properly. It is crucial to monitor INR levels to ensure the anticoagulation therapy is within the therapeutic range and to prevent bleeding complications. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice B) is more relevant for clients with diabetes or those on medications affecting blood sugar. Serum creatinine (Choice C) is typically monitored to assess kidney function. Liver function (Choice D) is assessed through tests like AST, ALT, and bilirubin levels, and it is more relevant for assessing liver health rather than monitoring anticoagulation therapy.

2. A client has a new prescription for levothyroxine. What should the nurse teach the client?

• A. It should be taken at night
• B. Monitor for symptoms of hypothyroidism
• C. Take it with calcium supplements
• D. Take it on an empty stomach

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to take levothyroxine on an empty stomach. This is because levothyroxine should be taken in the morning on an empty stomach to ensure proper absorption. Option A is incorrect because levothyroxine is usually advised to be taken in the morning. Option B is not the priority teaching point as monitoring for hypothyroidism symptoms is ongoing care. Option C is incorrect as levothyroxine should not be taken with calcium supplements as they can interfere with its absorption.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?

• A. Shivering
• B. Oliguria
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Constricted pupils

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not being adequately perfused, leading to reduced urine production. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia, not directly related to cardiac output. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not a direct indicator of decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) can be caused by medications or sympathetic nervous system stimulation but are not specific to decreased cardiac output.

4. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed metoprolol. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypotension. Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, can lead to a decrease in blood pressure, resulting in hypotension. Monitoring blood pressure regularly is essential to detect and manage this adverse effect. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because metoprolol typically does not cause bradycardia, tachycardia, or hyperglycemia as its primary adverse effects.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased serum amylase
• B. Decreased serum lipase
• C. Elevated blood glucose
• D. Elevated calcium levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute pancreatitis, the nurse should expect elevated blood glucose levels. This is due to impaired insulin production by the inflamed pancreas. While serum amylase and lipase levels are typically elevated in acute pancreatitis, blood glucose levels are also affected due to the pancreatic dysfunction. Therefore, choices A and B are incorrect. Elevated calcium levels are not typically associated with acute pancreatitis, making choice D incorrect.

Similar Questions