Nursing Elites

1. A nurse enters a client's room and sees smoke coming from the trash can. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Close the window
• B. Evacuate the room
• C. Call the fire department
• D. Attempt to extinguish the fire

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to evacuate the room first. In a fire situation, the priority is safety, following the RACE protocol: Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish. Evacuating the room ensures the safety of both the client and the nurse. Closing the window (Choice A) can wait until after evacuation when there is no immediate danger. Calling the fire department (Choice C) is important but comes after ensuring personal safety and evacuating. Attempting to extinguish the fire (Choice D) is not recommended as it can put the nurse and the client at risk; firefighting should be left to professionals.

2. A client is receiving morphine. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Liver function
• B. Respiratory rate
• C. Blood glucose levels
• D. Bowel sounds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is receiving morphine, monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial because morphine can cause respiratory depression. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to assess the client's breathing to detect any signs of respiratory distress. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because morphine primarily affects the respiratory system, not the liver function, blood glucose levels, or bowel sounds.

3. A client has been prescribed amlodipine for hypertension. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Dizziness
• C. Rash
• D. Headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Dizziness.' Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension, can cause dizziness due to its blood pressure-lowering effects. It is crucial for clients to report dizziness to their healthcare provider as it may indicate hypotension. Dry cough (choice A) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, rash (choice C) may be seen in allergic reactions, and headache (choice D) is a less common side effect of amlodipine.

4. A nurse is admitting a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia with severe features. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Restrict protein intake to less than 40 g/day
• B. Initiate seizure precautions for the client
• C. Initiate an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride at 150 mL/hr
• D. Encourage the client to ambulate twice per day

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to initiate seizure precautions for the client. Severe preeclampsia increases the risk of seizures (eclampsia), making it crucial to prioritize the safety of the client. Restricting protein intake (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation as seizure prevention takes precedence. While maintaining hydration is essential, starting an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride (Choice C) is not the initial action needed for seizure prevention. Encouraging the client to ambulate (Choice D) may not be safe or appropriate considering the severity of preeclampsia and the risk of seizures.

5. A nurse is assessing a 1-hour postpartum client and notes a boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Take vital signs
• B. Assess lochia
• C. Massage the fundus
• D. Give oxytocin IV bolus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a nurse assesses a 1-hour postpartum client with a boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus, it indicates uterine atony. The first action the nurse should take is to massage the fundus. Fundal massage helps stimulate uterine contractions, which will reduce bleeding and prevent postpartum hemorrhage. Taking vital signs, assessing lochia, or administering an oxytocin IV bolus are important interventions but should come after addressing uterine atony through fundal massage.

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