Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is suctioning a client through a tracheostomy tube. During the procedure, the client begins to cough, and the nurse hears a wheeze. The nurse tries to remove the suction catheter from the client’s trachea but is unable to do so. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Call a code
• B. Contact the physician
• C. Administer a bronchodilator
• D. Disconnect the suction source from the catheter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Inability to remove a suction catheter is a critical situation that may indicate the presence of bronchospasm and bronchoconstriction, as evidenced by the client coughing and wheezing. The immediate action for the nurse is to disconnect the suction source from the catheter, allowing the catheter to remain in the trachea. By doing so, the nurse can then connect the oxygen source to the catheter to provide essential oxygenation to the client. Contacting the physician is necessary to notify them of the situation and to obtain further orders, typically for an inhaled bronchodilator to relieve the bronchospasm. Administering a bronchodilator without physician's orders is not within the nurse's scope of practice and should not be the first action. Calling a code would be excessive at this point and should only be done if the client's condition deteriorates and immediate resuscitation is required.

2. A client was admitted for a myocardial infarction and cardiogenic shock 2 days ago. Which laboratory test result should a nurse expect to find?

• A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 52 mg/dL
• B. Creatinine of 2.3 mg/dL
• C. BUN of 10 mg/dL
• D. BUN/creatinine ratio of 8:1

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cardiogenic shock, decreased renal perfusion leads to an elevated BUN. Choice A is correct. Creatinine remains normal in cardiogenic shock as it signifies kidney damage, which has not occurred in this case. A low BUN indicates overhydration, malnutrition, or liver damage, which are not typically seen in cardiogenic shock. A low BUN/creatinine ratio is associated with fluid volume excess or acute renal tubular acidosis, not specifically indicative of cardiogenic shock.

3. An emergency department nurse assesses a client with a history of urinary incontinence who presents with extreme dry mouth, constipation, and an inability to void. Which question should the nurse ask first?

• A. Are you drinking plenty of water?
• B. What medications are you taking?
• C. Have you tried laxatives or enemas?
• D. Has this type of thing ever happened before?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's symptoms of dry mouth, constipation, and inability to void are indicative of anticholinergic side effects, which can be caused by medications like propantheline (Pro-Banthine) commonly used to treat incontinence. The first question the nurse should ask is about the client's medications to determine if they are taking anticholinergic drugs. This information is crucial as it can help differentiate between a simple side effect or a potential overdose. Asking about water intake (Choice A) may be relevant later but is not the priority in this situation. Questioning about laxatives or enemas (Choice C) and past occurrences (Choice D) are not as pertinent initially as identifying the client's current medication status.

4. The patient is taking low-dose erythromycin prophylactically and will start cefaclor for treating an acute infection. The nurse should discuss this with the provider because taking both medications simultaneously can cause which effect?

• A. Decreased effectiveness of cefaclor.
• B. Increased effectiveness of cefaclor.
• C. Decreased effectiveness of erythromycin.
• D. Increased effectiveness of erythromycin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When erythromycin and cefaclor are taken together, erythromycin can inhibit the metabolism of cefaclor, leading to elevated cefaclor levels and potentially causing adverse effects. This results in a decrease in the effectiveness of cefaclor. Therefore, the nurse should discuss this potential drug interaction with the provider to consider an alternative treatment or adjust the dosages to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the concern lies with the effect on cefaclor when combined with erythromycin, not the effect on erythromycin itself.

5. The nurse is caring for a patient who has recurrent urinary tract infections. The patient’s current infection is not responding to an antibiotic that has been used successfully several times in the past. The nurse understands that this is most likely due to

• A. acquired bacterial resistance.
• B. cross-resistance.
• C. inherent bacterial resistance.
• D. transferred resistance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: acquired bacterial resistance. Acquired resistance happens when an organism has been exposed to the antibacterial drug, making it less effective over time. Cross-resistance (B) occurs when resistance to one drug leads to resistance to another. Inherent resistance (C) happens without prior exposure to the drug, meaning the bacteria are naturally resistant. Transferred resistance (D) involves the transfer of resistant genes from one organism to another, contributing to resistance development.

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