Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is suctioning a client through a tracheostomy tube. During the procedure, the client begins to cough, and the nurse hears a wheeze. The nurse tries to remove the suction catheter from the client’s trachea but is unable to do so. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Call a code
• B. Contact the physician
• C. Administer a bronchodilator
• D. Disconnect the suction source from the catheter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Inability to remove a suction catheter is a critical situation that may indicate the presence of bronchospasm and bronchoconstriction, as evidenced by the client coughing and wheezing. The immediate action for the nurse is to disconnect the suction source from the catheter, allowing the catheter to remain in the trachea. By doing so, the nurse can then connect the oxygen source to the catheter to provide essential oxygenation to the client. Contacting the physician is necessary to notify them of the situation and to obtain further orders, typically for an inhaled bronchodilator to relieve the bronchospasm. Administering a bronchodilator without physician's orders is not within the nurse's scope of practice and should not be the first action. Calling a code would be excessive at this point and should only be done if the client's condition deteriorates and immediate resuscitation is required.

2. The nurse is caring for several patients who are receiving antibiotics. Which order will the nurse question?

• A. Azithromycin (Zithromax) 500 mg IV in 500 mL of fluid
• B. Azithromycin (Zithromax) 500 mg PO once daily
• C. Erythromycin 300 mg IM QID
• D. Erythromycin 300 mg PO QID

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should question the order for Erythromycin 300 mg IM QID. Erythromycin and other macrolides should not be given intramuscularly because they cause painful tissue irritation. Options A and B are correct routes for Azithromycin, either intravenously or orally. Option D is a correct route for Erythromycin, which is orally.

3. A client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy should have which of the following laboratory results reviewed to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC).
• B. Prothrombin time (PT).
• C. International normalized ratio (INR).
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is the most appropriate laboratory result to review when evaluating the effectiveness of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication, and the INR helps determine if the dosage is within a therapeutic range to prevent clotting or bleeding complications. Choice A, a Complete Blood Count (CBC), provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the anticoagulant effects of warfarin. Choice B, Prothrombin time (PT), measures the time it takes for blood to clot but is not as specific for monitoring warfarin therapy as the INR. Choice D, Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT), evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not the primary test used to monitor warfarin therapy.

4. A client with kidney stones from secondary hyperoxaluria requires medication. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering?

• A. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium)
• B. Propantheline (Pro-Banthine)
• C. Tolterodine (Detrol LA)
• D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Allopurinol (Zyloprim). Allopurinol is used to treat kidney stones caused by secondary hyperoxaluria. This medication helps prevent the formation of certain types of kidney stones. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) is given to clients with urinary tract infections, not for kidney stones. Propantheline (Pro-Banthine) is an anticholinergic medication used for treating certain gastrointestinal conditions, not kidney stones. Tolterodine (Detrol LA) is also an anticholinergic with smooth muscle relaxant properties, primarily used to treat overactive bladder conditions, not kidney stones.

5. A client is to have a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy to remove a large, invasive pituitary tumor. The nurse should instruct the client that the surgery will be performed through an incision in the:

• A. Back of the mouth.
• B. Nose.
• C. Sinus channel below the right eye.
• D. Upper gingival mucosa in the space between the upper gums and lip.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Upper gingival mucosa in the space between the upper gums and lip. A transsphenoidal hypophysectomy involves accessing the pituitary gland through an incision in the upper gingival mucosa, providing direct access to the pituitary gland without external scars. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the surgery is not performed through the back of the mouth, the nose, or the sinus channel below the right eye. It is crucial for the client to understand the specific location of the incision to ensure accurate preoperative education and expectations.

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