a nurse is reviewing a new prescription for iron supplements with a client who is at 8 weeks of gestation and has iron deficiency anemia which of the
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam

1. A client at 8 weeks of gestation with iron deficiency anemia is prescribed iron supplements. Which beverage should the nurse reinforce the client to take the supplements with for better absorption?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Orange juice.' Orange juice is recommended to be taken with iron supplements because vitamin C present in orange juice enhances iron absorption, improving the effectiveness of the supplement. It is essential to take iron supplements with a source of vitamin C to optimize iron absorption and address iron deficiency anemia. Ice water (Choice A), low-fat or whole milk (Choice B), and tea or coffee (Choice C) are not ideal choices to take with iron supplements as they do not contain vitamin C, which is crucial for enhancing iron absorption.

2. A client who is 12 hours postpartum has a fundus located two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus, deviated to the right of the midline, and less firm than previously noted. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's fundus findings indicate a distended bladder, which can lead to uterine atony. Assisting the client to the bathroom to void is essential as a distended bladder can inhibit the uterus from contracting normally. This action can help the uterus contract effectively and prevent complications such as postpartum hemorrhage. Placing the client in a side-lying position, obtaining a prescription for IV oxytocin, or administering methylergonovine are not the priority actions in this situation. Placing the client in a side-lying position might be indicated for fundal displacement, but it is not the priority here. Obtaining a prescription for IV oxytocin and administering methylergonovine are interventions for managing uterine atony, which is not the primary issue in this case; the priority is addressing the distended bladder.

3. A caregiver is being taught about bottle feeding a newborn. Which of the following statements by the caregiver indicates a need for further instruction?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tilting the bottle to prevent air from entering as the baby sucks can lead to the baby swallowing air, causing discomfort and potential issues like colic or gas. The correct way to bottle-feed a newborn is by ensuring that the nipple is always filled with milk to avoid air intake, which can lead to problems. Keeping the baby's head elevated while feeding helps prevent choking, allowing the baby to burp several times during each feeding helps release swallowed air, and soft, formed yellow stools indicate a healthy digestion process in newborns.

4. A client in a prenatal clinic is pregnant and experiencing episodes of maternal hypotension. The client asks the nurse what causes these episodes. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Maternal hypotension during pregnancy is often caused by the weight of the uterus pressing on the vena cava when the client is lying on her back, which reduces blood flow to the heart. This compression can lead to a decrease in blood pressure and subsequent symptoms of hypotension. Choice A is incorrect because an increase in blood volume typically leads to increased blood pressure rather than hypotension. Choice B is incorrect as pressure from the uterus on the diaphragm is not a common cause of maternal hypotension. Choice D is incorrect because increased cardiac output would not directly cause maternal hypotension.

5. A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with her first pregnancy asks the nurse when she can expect to experience quickening. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Quickening, which is the first perception of fetal movements by the mother, typically occurs between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy, around 18-20 weeks of gestation. Choice C is correct as it provides the client with accurate information about the expected timing of this significant milestone in her pregnancy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because quickening does not happen during the last trimester, by the end of the first trimester, or once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis. The correct timeframe for quickening is during the second trimester, specifically between the fourth and fifth months.

Similar Questions

During the third trimester of pregnancy, which of the following findings should a nurse recognize as an expected physiologic change?
A newborn is small for gestational age (SGA). Which of the following findings is associated with this condition?
A nurse on a labor unit is admitting a client who reports painful contractions. The nurse determines that the contractions have a duration of 1 minute and a frequency of 3 minutes. The nurse obtains the following vital signs: fetal heart rate 130/min, maternal heart rate 128/min, and maternal blood pressure 92/54 mm Hg. Which of the following is the priority action for the nurse to take?
A nurse in a clinic receives a phone call from a client who would like information about pregnancy testing. Which of the following information should the nurse provide to the client?
During active labor, a nurse notes tachycardia on the external fetal monitor tracing. Which of the following conditions should the nurse identify as a potential cause of the heart rate?

Access More Features

ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses