Nursing Elites

1. During Leopold maneuvers on a client in labor, which technique should be used by the nurse to identify the fetal lie?

• A. Apply palms of both hands to sides of the uterus
• B. Palpate the fundus of the uterus
• C. Grasp the lower uterine segment between thumb and fingers
• D. Stand facing the client's feet with fingertips outlining cephalic prominence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Palpating the fundus of the uterus during Leopold maneuvers is crucial to identify the fetal lie. This technique allows the nurse to determine the position of the baby's back and locate the fetal heart sounds, aiding in assessing the fetal lie. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to identifying the fetal lie during Leopold maneuvers. Applying palms to the sides of the uterus or grasping the lower uterine segment do not provide the necessary information about the fetal lie. Standing facing the client's feet and outlining cephalic prominence is more related to assessing the fetal presentation, not the fetal lie.

2. A client is postpartum and has idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased platelet count
• B. Increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
• C. Decreased megakaryocytes
• D. Increased WBC

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is characterized by an autoimmune response that leads to a decreased platelet count. This condition increases the risk of bleeding due to the low platelet levels. Monitoring the platelet count is crucial in managing ITP, as it helps determine the risk of bleeding and guides treatment decisions. Therefore, the correct finding to expect in a client with ITP is a decreased platelet count. Choice B, an increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), is not typically associated with ITP. Choice C, decreased megakaryocytes, may be seen in conditions like aplastic anemia but are not a typical finding in ITP. Choice D, an increased white blood cell count (WBC), is not a characteristic feature of ITP.

3. A healthcare provider in an antepartum clinic is collecting data from a client who has a TORCH infection. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect? (Select all that apply)

• A. Joint pain
• B. Malaise
• C. Rash
• D. Tender lymph nodes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A TORCH infection can cause joint pain, malaise, rash, and tender lymph nodes. These findings are characteristic of TORCH infections and are important to recognize in pregnant individuals as they can have serious implications for both the mother and the fetus. While joint pain, malaise, and rash can be present in TORCH infections, tender lymph nodes are a common finding that the healthcare provider should expect. Tender lymph nodes are often associated with the inflammatory response to infection and can be palpated during a physical examination. Therefore, in this scenario, the healthcare provider should anticipate the presence of tender lymph nodes in a client with a TORCH infection, making option D the correct answer.

4. A client in labor requests epidural anesthesia for pain control. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Position the client supine for 30 minutes after the first dose of anesthetic solution.
• B. Administer 1,000 mL of dextrose 5% in water after the first dose of anesthetic solution.
• C. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 5 minutes after the first dose of anesthetic solution.
• D. Ensure the client has been NPO for 4 hours before the placement of the epidural and the first dose of anesthetic solution.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action is to monitor the client's blood pressure every 5 to 10 minutes following the first dose of anesthetic solution to assess for maternal hypotension. This is crucial to detect and manage potential complications associated with the epidural anesthesia. Positioning the client supine for a prolonged period can lead to hypotension; administering dextrose solution is not a standard practice in epidural anesthesia; ensuring NPO status for 4 hours is not necessary before epidural placement.

5. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate via a continuous IV infusion. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Monitor the client's blood pressure every hour.
• B. Restrict the total hourly intake to 200 mL.
• C. Monitor the FHR continuously.
• D. Administer protamine sulfate for manifestations of toxicity.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When a client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate via continuous IV infusion, it is crucial to monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR) continuously. Magnesium sulfate is given to prevent seizures and is considered a high-alert medication that requires close monitoring, especially of FHR and uterine contractions. Monitoring the client's blood pressure every hour, as in choice A, is important but not as crucial as continuous FHR monitoring. Restricting the total hourly intake to 200 mL, as in choice B, is not a relevant intervention for a client receiving magnesium sulfate. Administering protamine sulfate for manifestations of toxicity, as in choice D, is incorrect as protamine sulfate is not the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity.

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