Nursing Elites

1. A client with a BMI of 26.5 is seeking advice on weight gain during pregnancy at the first prenatal visit. Which of the following responses should the nurse provide?

• A. It would be best if you gained about 11 to 20 pounds.
• B. The recommendation for you is about 15 to 25 pounds.
• C. A gain of about 25 to 35 pounds is recommended for you.
• D. A gain of about 1 pound per week is the best pattern for you.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a client with a BMI of 26.5 (overweight), the recommended weight gain during pregnancy is 15 to 25 pounds. This range helps promote a healthy pregnancy outcome and reduces the risk of complications associated with excessive weight gain. Option A suggests a lower weight gain range, which may not be adequate for a client with a BMI of 26.5. Option C indicates a higher weight gain range, which could lead to complications for an overweight individual. Option D provides a general guideline for weight gain without considering the client's BMI, which is not personalized advice. Therefore, the most appropriate response is option B, offering a suitable weight gain recommendation for the client's BMI to support a healthy pregnancy journey.

2. A woman at 38 weeks of gestation is admitted in early labor with ruptured membranes. The nurse determines that the client's oral temperature is 38.9°C (102°F). Besides notifying the provider, which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?

• A. Recheck the client's temperature in 4 hours.
• B. Administer glucocorticoids intramuscularly.
• C. Assess the odor of the amniotic fluid.
• D. Prepare the client for emergency cesarean section.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated temperature in a woman with ruptured membranes may indicate infection. Assessing the odor of the amniotic fluid can help determine if chorioamnionitis (an infection of the amniotic fluid) is present. This assessment is crucial to guide further interventions and management of the client's condition. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Rechecking the client's temperature in 4 hours does not address the immediate concern of potential infection. Administering glucocorticoids intramuscularly is not indicated based solely on an elevated temperature. Preparing the client for an emergency cesarean section is premature and not supported by the information provided.

3. When reinforcing teaching with a group of new parents about proper techniques for bottle feeding, which of the following instructions should be provided?

• A. Burp the newborn at the end of the feeding
• B. Hold the newborn close in a supine position
• C. Keep the nipple full of formula throughout the feeding
• D. Refrigerate any unused formula

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct technique for bottle feeding includes keeping the nipple full of formula throughout the feeding to prevent air from entering the baby's stomach. This helps reduce the risk of the baby swallowing air, which can lead to discomfort and colic. Therefore, maintaining a full nipple during feeding is essential for the baby's comfort and digestion. Option A is incorrect as burping should be done during the feeding to prevent excessive air intake. Option B is incorrect as the baby should be held semi-upright, not in a supine position, to reduce the risk of choking and ear infections. Option D is irrelevant to the feeding process and does not contribute to the baby's well-being.

4. A client in the antepartum unit is at 36 weeks of gestation and has pregnancy-induced hypertension. Suddenly, the client reports continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The nurse should suspect which of the following complications?

• A. Placenta previa
• B. Prolapsed cord
• C. Incompetent cervix
• D. Abruptio placentae

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Abruptio placentae is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, which can cause continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. In this scenario, the client's symptoms of sudden abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding are indicative of abruptio placentae, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent potential complications for both the client and the fetus. Placenta previa is characterized by painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester, not sudden abdominal pain. Prolapsed cord presents with visible umbilical cord protruding from the vagina and is not associated with abruptio placentae symptoms. Incompetent cervix typically manifests as painless cervical dilation in the second trimester, not sudden abdominal pain and bleeding as seen in abruptio placentae.

5. A client who is at 12 weeks of gestation is reviewing a new prescription of ferrous sulfate. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will take this pill with my breakfast.
• B. I will take this medication with a glass of milk.
• C. I plan to drink more orange juice while taking this pill.
• D. I plan to add more calcium-rich foods to my diet while taking this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Taking iron supplements with orange juice, which contains vitamin C, enhances the absorption of iron, making the treatment more effective. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking ferrous sulfate with milk, calcium-rich foods, or breakfast may hinder iron absorption due to interactions with calcium or other substances that compete with iron absorption.

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