ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam
1. When providing care for a client in preterm labor at 32 weeks of gestation, which medication should the nurse anticipate the provider will prescribe to hasten fetal lung maturity?
- A. Calcium gluconate
- B. Indomethacin
- C. Nifedipine
- D. Betamethasone
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Betamethasone is the correct medication to anticipate the provider prescribing to hasten fetal lung maturity in clients at risk for preterm labor. It is a corticosteroid that helps promote lung maturation in the preterm fetus by stimulating the production of surfactant, which is essential for lung function. This medication is commonly given to pregnant individuals at risk of preterm delivery between 24 and 34 weeks of gestation to reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn. Calcium gluconate, Indomethacin, and Nifedipine are not used to hasten fetal lung maturity in preterm labor; they serve different purposes in maternal and fetal care.
2. When assessing a newborn with respiratory distress syndrome who received synthetic surfactant, which parameter should the nurse monitor to evaluate the newborn's condition?
- A. Oxygen saturation
- B. Body temperature
- C. Serum bilirubin
- D. Heart rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a newborn with respiratory distress syndrome who has received synthetic surfactant, monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment. Oxygen saturation levels provide valuable information about the newborn's respiratory status and the adequacy of gas exchange. Changes in oxygen saturation can indicate improvements or deterioration in the newborn's condition following the administration of synthetic surfactant. Monitoring oxygen saturation helps the nurse assess the newborn's response to treatment and make timely interventions if needed. Body temperature, serum bilirubin, and heart rate are important parameters to monitor in newborns for other conditions but are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of synthetic surfactant in treating respiratory distress syndrome.
3. When caring for a client receiving nifedipine for prevention of preterm labor, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations?
- A. Blood-tinged sputum
- B. Dizziness
- C. Pallor
- D. Somnolence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Question: When caring for a client receiving nifedipine for prevention of preterm labor, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations? Rationale: Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, causes vasodilation, potentially leading to a decrease in blood pressure and side effects such as dizziness. Monitoring for dizziness is essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being during treatment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with nifedipine use for preventing preterm labor. Blood-tinged sputum may indicate other conditions like pulmonary issues, pallor could suggest anemia or circulatory problems, and somnolence is not a common side effect of nifedipine.
4. A client in a family planning clinic requests oral contraceptives. Which of the following findings in the client's history should be recognized as contraindications to oral contraceptives? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Cholecystitis
- B. Hypertension
- C. Migraine headaches
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cholecystitis is a correct answer. A history of gallbladder disease, such as cholecystitis, is a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives. Hypertension is a correct answer. Hypertension is also a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of complications. Migraine headaches are a correct answer. A history of migraine headaches is a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives, especially for those with aura. Selecting 'All of the above' is correct as all the mentioned conditions (cholecystitis, hypertension, and migraine headaches) are contraindications for oral contraceptives. Human papillomavirus and anxiety disorder are incorrect choices as they are not contraindications for the use of oral contraceptives.
5. A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who reports abrupt, sharp, right-sided lower quadrant abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding. The client states, 'I missed one menstrual cycle and cannot be pregnant because I have an intrauterine device.' The nurse should suspect which of the following?
- A. Missed abortion
- B. Ectopic pregnancy
- C. Severe preeclampsia
- D. Hydatidiform mole
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Ectopic pregnancy should be suspected in clients with abrupt, sharp, right-sided lower quadrant abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding, especially if they have an intrauterine device (IUD). In this case, the client's symptoms are classic for ectopic pregnancy, where the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, commonly in the fallopian tube. Missed abortion (choice A) refers to a nonviable embryo or fetus in the uterus, which is not consistent with the client's presentation. Severe preeclampsia (choice C) is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, not the symptoms described. Hydatidiform mole (choice D) presents with vaginal bleeding but typically lacks abdominal pain and is not related to the presence of an IUD.
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