Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assisting with the care for a client who is experiencing a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following findings is expected with this condition?

• A. No alteration in menses
• B. Transvaginal ultrasound indicating a fetus in the uterus
• C. Blood progesterone greater than the expected reference range
• D. Report of severe shoulder pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Severe shoulder pain is a common finding in clients with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy due to referred pain from diaphragmatic irritation caused by blood in the abdominal cavity. This pain is known as Kehr's sign and is often experienced in the shoulder due to irritation of the phrenic nerve. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A ruptured ectopic pregnancy typically presents with symptoms such as abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and signs of shock, rather than no alteration in menses, a fetus in the uterus, or elevated blood progesterone levels.

2. A client who is 6 hours postpartum and Rh-negative has an Rh-positive newborn. The client asks why an indirect Coombs test was ordered. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the healthcare provider?

• A. It determines if kernicterus will occur in the newborn.
• B. It detects Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood.
• C. It detects Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood.
• D. It determines the presence of maternal antibodies in the newborn's blood.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The indirect Coombs test is performed to detect Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood. In cases where the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive, the mother may develop antibodies against the baby's blood cells, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. Choice A is incorrect because kernicterus is a complication of severe jaundice, not directly assessed by the indirect Coombs test. Choice B is incorrect as the test aims to detect Rh-positive antibodies, not Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood. Choice D is incorrect as the test is focused on detecting antibodies in the mother's blood, not the newborn's.

3. A client in labor is having contractions 4 minutes apart. Which of the following patterns should the nurse expect on the fetal monitoring tracing?

• A. Contractions that last for 60 seconds each with a 4-minute rest between contractions
• B. A contraction that lasts 4 minutes followed by a period of relaxation
• C. Contractions that last for 60 seconds each with a 3-minute rest between contractions
• D. Contractions that last 45 seconds each with a 3-minute rest between contractions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When contractions are 4 minutes apart, it means there are 4 minutes from the start of one contraction to the start of the next. If each contraction lasts 60 seconds, there will be a 3-minute rest period between contractions. This allows for adequate uterine relaxation and recovery before the next contraction begins. Choice A is incorrect because it suggests a 4-minute rest between contractions, which is not accurate. Choice B is incorrect as contractions lasting 4 minutes continuously without rest would be concerning. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests 45-second contractions instead of 60-second contractions.

4. A nurse at an antepartum clinic is caring for a client who is at 4 months of gestation. The client reports continued nausea, vomiting, and scant, prune-colored discharge. The client has experienced no weight loss and has a fundal height larger than expected. Which of the following complications should the nurse suspect?

• A. Hyperemesis gravidarum
• B. Threatened abortion
• C. Hydatidiform mole
• D. Preterm labor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of continued nausea, vomiting, scant prune-colored discharge, and a fundal height larger than expected at 4 months of gestation suggest a possible hydatidiform mole. Hyperemesis gravidarum (choice A) typically presents with severe nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and electrolyte imbalances. Threatened abortion (choice B) is characterized by vaginal bleeding with or without cramping but does not typically present with prune-colored discharge. Preterm labor (choice D) manifests with regular uterine contractions leading to cervical changes and can occur later in pregnancy.

5. A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has a prescription for a nonstress test is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You will receive IV fluid before this test.
• B. The procedure will take approximately 10 to 15 minutes.
• C. You will be offered orange juice to drink during the test.
• D. You will need to sign an informed consent form before each test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include in the teaching is that the client will be offered orange juice to drink during the nonstress test. This is because offering the client orange juice, or another beverage high in glucose, will help stimulate the fetus during the procedure, aiding in obtaining accurate results. Choice A is incorrect because IV fluid is not typically administered before a nonstress test. Choice B is incorrect as the procedure usually takes around 20 to 40 minutes. Choice D is incorrect as informed consent is typically obtained once for the procedure, not before each individual test.

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