Nursing Elites

1. During a client's active labor, a healthcare provider notes that the presenting part is at 0 station. What is the correct interpretation of this clinical finding?

• A. The fetal head is in the left occiput posterior position.
• B. The largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet.
• C. The posterior fontanel is palpable.
• D. The lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: At 0 station, the lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines, indicating that the presenting part of the baby has engaged in the pelvis. This position is a significant milestone in labor progress and suggests that the baby is descending into the birth canal for delivery. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A refers to the fetal head position, choice B describes the largest fetal diameter passing through the pelvic outlet (which is not related to station), and choice C refers to the palpability of the posterior fontanel (which is not relevant to station in labor).

2. A client who is 2 days postpartum reports that their 4-year-old son, who was previously toilet trained, is now wetting himself frequently. Which of the following statements should the nurse provide to the client?

• A. Your son may not have been ready for toilet training and should wear training pants.
• B. Your son is displaying an adverse sibling response.
• C. Your son may benefit from counseling.
• D. Consider enrolling your son in preschool to address the behavior.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The regression in toilet training is a common adverse sibling response to the birth of a new baby. When a new sibling arrives, the older child may revert to behaviors from an earlier stage, such as bedwetting, to gain attention or cope with feelings of insecurity. This behavior is temporary and often resolves with time and reassurance. Recommending counseling or preschool at this point would be premature and not addressing the underlying cause of the behavior.

3. A client gave birth 2 hours ago, and their blood pressure is 60/50 mm Hg. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Evaluate the firmness of the uterus.
• B. Initiate oxygen therapy via a non-rebreather mask.
• C. Administer oxytocin infusion.
• D. Obtain a type and crossmatch.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing the firmness of the uterus is crucial in this situation. A uterus that is not firm could indicate postpartum hemorrhage, a common cause of low blood pressure after childbirth. By evaluating the firmness of the uterus, the nurse can quickly identify and address potential complications, such as excessive bleeding. Initiating oxygen therapy, administering oxytocin infusion, or obtaining a type and crossmatch may be necessary interventions later, but assessing the firmness of the uterus takes precedence as the first step in managing postpartum complications.

4. A client in active labor at 39 weeks of gestation is receiving continuous IV oxytocin and has early decelerations in the FHR on the monitor tracing. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion.
• B. Continue monitoring the client.
• C. Request that the provider assess the client.
• D. Increase the infusion rate of the maintenance IV fluid.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Early decelerations in the FHR are benign and are typically caused by fetal head compression during contractions. In this case, with the client at 39 weeks of gestation and on oxytocin, it is important for the nurse to continue monitoring the client. Early decelerations do not require intervention as they are a normal response to certain stimuli and do not indicate fetal distress. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion (Choice A) is not necessary as early decelerations are not related to oxytocin administration. Requesting the provider to assess the client (Choice C) is not needed for early decelerations as they are a normal finding. Increasing the infusion rate of the maintenance IV fluid (Choice D) is not indicated and would not address the early decelerations. Therefore, the appropriate action is to continue monitoring the client and reassess as needed.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to collect a blood specimen from a newborn via a heel stick. Which of the following techniques should the professional use to help minimize the pain of the procedure for the newborn?

• A. Apply a cool pack to the heel for 10 minutes prior to the puncture.
• B. Request a prescription for IM analgesic.
• C. Use a manual lancet to pierce the skin.
• D. Place the newborn skin-to-skin on the mother's chest.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Placing the newborn skin-to-skin on the mother's chest is an effective technique to significantly decrease the newborn's pain level and anxiety during a heel stick procedure. This approach provides comfort, warmth, and familiarity to the newborn, promoting a sense of security and reducing distress. It is important for the healthcare professional to implement this technique before, during, and after the procedure to optimize pain management and support newborn well-being. The other options, such as applying a cool pack, requesting an IM analgesic prescription, and using a manual lancet, are not appropriate for minimizing pain in a newborn during a heel stick procedure. Applying a cool pack may cause vasoconstriction and increase pain, requesting an IM analgesic for a routine heel stick is excessive, and using a manual lancet without additional comforting measures may not adequately address the newborn's pain and anxiety.

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