ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will decrease my intake of foods that are high in phosphorus
- B. I will increase my intake of foods that are high in potassium
- C. I will decrease my intake of foods that are high in iron
- D. I will increase my intake of calcium supplements
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with chronic kidney disease should limit their intake of phosphorus because high phosphorus levels can lead to bone disease and cardiovascular problems. Increasing foods high in potassium (choice B) is not recommended as it can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease. Decreasing intake of foods high in iron (choice C) is not specifically indicated for chronic kidney disease. Increasing calcium supplements (choice D) may not be necessary and can potentially lead to hypercalcemia in individuals with kidney disease.
2. A nurse is admitting a client who is in labor and at 38 weeks of gestation to the maternal newborn unit. The client has a history of herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV-2). Which of the following questions is most appropriate for the nurse to ask the client?
- A. Have your membranes ruptured?
- B. How far apart are your contractions?
- C. Do you have any active lesions?
- D. Are you positive for beta strep?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate question for the nurse to ask the client in this scenario is whether they have any active lesions. Active lesions from HSV-2 during labor increase the risk of neonatal transmission, which would necessitate a cesarean section to prevent the infant from contracting the virus during delivery. Asking about the presence of active lesions is crucial to determine the appropriate management and precautions needed to protect the newborn. Choices A, B, and D are not as pertinent in this situation and do not directly address the potential risk of neonatal transmission of HSV-2.
3. A healthcare provider is caring for a patient and realizes they administered the wrong medication. What action should the healthcare provider take first?
- A. Notify the provider.
- B. Report the incident to the risk manager.
- C. Check the condition of the patient.
- D. Complete an incident report.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The healthcare provider should first assess the patient to determine if any harm has occurred as a result of the medication error. Checking the patient's condition takes precedence as it allows for immediate intervention if necessary. Notifying the provider (choice A) can come later once the patient's condition is assessed. Reporting to the risk manager (choice B) and completing an incident report (choice D) are important steps but should follow the initial assessment of the patient to ensure timely and appropriate actions are taken.
4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a long arm cast. Which of the following findings indicates a moderate complication when assessing for acute compartment syndrome?
- A. Shortness of breath
- B. Petechiae
- C. Change in mental status
- D. Edema
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Edema is a common sign of acute compartment syndrome, which is a medical emergency caused by increased pressure within a muscle compartment, requiring immediate intervention. Shortness of breath (Choice A) is more indicative of a respiratory issue rather than acute compartment syndrome. Petechiae (Choice B) are pinpoint, round spots that appear on the skin due to bleeding under the skin and are not typically associated with acute compartment syndrome. Change in mental status (Choice C) is more suggestive of neurological issues rather than acute compartment syndrome.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and is experiencing continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The client has a history of cocaine use. The nurse should identify that the client is likely experiencing which of the following complications?
- A. Abruptio placentae
- B. Hydatidiform mole
- C. Preterm labor
- D. Placenta previa
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding in a client with a history of cocaine use suggest abruptio placentae, where the placenta detaches from the uterus prematurely, posing serious risks to both mother and fetus. Hydatidiform mole is characterized by abnormal trophoblastic tissue growth, not continuous pain and bleeding. Preterm labor is premature contractions leading to birth before 37 weeks gestation. Placenta previa involves the placenta partially or completely covering the cervix, presenting with painless vaginal bleeding.
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