Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will decrease my intake of foods that are high in phosphorus
• B. I will increase my intake of foods that are high in potassium
• C. I will decrease my intake of foods that are high in iron
• D. I will increase my intake of calcium supplements

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with chronic kidney disease should limit their intake of phosphorus because high phosphorus levels can lead to bone disease and cardiovascular problems. Increasing foods high in potassium (choice B) is not recommended as it can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease. Decreasing intake of foods high in iron (choice C) is not specifically indicated for chronic kidney disease. Increasing calcium supplements (choice D) may not be necessary and can potentially lead to hypercalcemia in individuals with kidney disease.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of fluid overload. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?

• A. Weight loss
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Edema
• D. Increased urine output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Edema is a common sign of fluid overload. When the body retains more fluid than it excretes, it can lead to edema, which is swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in body tissues. Weight gain, not weight loss, is typically associated with fluid overload due to the retained fluids. Decreased blood pressure is more commonly associated with dehydration rather than fluid overload. Increased urine output is a sign of the body trying to eliminate excess fluids, which is contrary to the signs of fluid overload.

3. A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about contraindications to ceftriaxone. The nurse should include a severe allergy to which of the following medications as a contraindication to ceftriaxone?

• A. Gentamicin
• B. Clindamycin
• C. Piperacillin
• D. Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ceftriaxone is a cephalosporin, and individuals with a penicillin allergy (such as Piperacillin) may have cross-sensitivity, making it contraindicated. Gentamicin (Choice A) belongs to the aminoglycoside class, not related to cephalosporins. Clindamycin (Choice B) is a lincosamide antibiotic and is not typically associated with cross-allergies to cephalosporins. Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim (Choice D) is a sulfonamide antibiotic, also not directly related to ceftriaxone.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 14 weeks of gestation and has hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Digoxin
• B. Calcium gluconate
• C. Vitamin B6
• D. Propranolol

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine). Vitamin B6 is often used to treat nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, including hyperemesis gravidarum. It is considered safe for use in pregnant clients. Digoxin (Choice A) is a medication used for heart conditions, not for hyperemesis gravidarum. Calcium gluconate (Choice B) is used to treat calcium deficiencies, not nausea and vomiting in pregnancy. Propranolol (Choice D) is a beta-blocker used for conditions like hypertension and anxiety, not for hyperemesis gravidarum.

5. A client has been prescribed albuterol. Which of the following is a priority adverse effect the nurse should monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Dizziness
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, can lead to tachycardia due to its stimulant effect on beta-2 receptors in the heart. Monitoring for tachycardia is crucial as it can be a sign of excessive sympathetic stimulation and may lead to severe complications. Bradycardia, dizziness, and hypertension are less likely adverse effects of albuterol, making them lower priority for monitoring in this context.

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