ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. What action should the nurse take if the client develops toxicity?
- A. Position the client supine
- B. Prepare an IV bolus of dextrose 5%
- C. Administer calcium gluconate IV
- D. Administer methylergonovine IM
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In cases of magnesium sulfate toxicity, calcium gluconate is the antidote as it helps reverse the effects. Positioning the client supine (Choice A) may not directly address magnesium sulfate toxicity. Administering dextrose 5% (Choice B) is not the correct intervention for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Methylergonovine IM (Choice D) is used to manage postpartum hemorrhage, not magnesium sulfate toxicity.
2. A nurse is planning to delegate client assignments to the assistive personnel. Which of the following tasks is appropriate for the nurse to delegate?
- A. Adjust the flow rate of the client’s oxygen tank
- B. Collect a urine sample
- C. Measure the client’s pain level
- D. Monitor blood glucose levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Collect a urine sample. Delegating this task to assistive personnel is appropriate as it falls within their scope of practice. Tasks like adjusting the flow rate of oxygen tanks, measuring pain levels, and monitoring blood glucose levels require clinical judgment and should be performed by a nurse. It is important for nurses to delegate tasks that align with the competencies of assistive personnel to ensure safe and effective patient care.
3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with congestive heart failure. Which of the following signs should the healthcare provider monitor?
- A. Peripheral edema
- B. Decreased appetite
- C. Fatigue
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct! In a client with congestive heart failure, peripheral edema, decreased appetite, and fatigue are important signs to monitor as they can indicate worsening heart failure. Peripheral edema is a common sign of fluid retention due to the heart's inability to pump effectively, decreased appetite may indicate worsening heart function, and fatigue can be a result of inadequate cardiac output. Monitoring all these signs is crucial for early intervention and management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because monitoring only one symptom may not provide a comprehensive assessment of the client's condition.
4. A client who is 2 hours postpartum reports heavy bleeding and passing large clots. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Perform fundal massage
- B. Administer oxytocin IV
- C. Check vital signs
- D. Encourage the client to void
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform fundal massage. Fundal massage promotes uterine contractions, which is the initial action to reduce postpartum hemorrhage caused by uterine atony. Checking vital signs (choice C) is important but not the priority when active bleeding is present. Administering oxytocin IV (choice B) may be needed but is not the priority action. Encouraging the client to void (choice D) does not address the underlying issue of postpartum hemorrhage and should not be the priority.
5. While providing education about the use of lorazepam, which of the following should be included?
- A. It can cause dependency
- B. It can be taken with alcohol
- C. It has no side effects
- D. It is a stimulant
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It can cause dependency.' Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine known to cause dependency, so it is crucial for clients to be informed about this potential risk. Choice B is incorrect as combining lorazepam with alcohol can lead to increased sedation and other adverse effects. Choice C is incorrect because lorazepam, like any medication, can have side effects such as drowsiness, dizziness, or confusion. Choice D is also incorrect as lorazepam is a sedative-hypnotic medication, not a stimulant.
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