Nursing Elites

1. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. What action should the nurse take if the client develops toxicity?

• A. Position the client supine
• B. Prepare an IV bolus of dextrose 5%
• C. Administer calcium gluconate IV
• D. Administer methylergonovine IM

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cases of magnesium sulfate toxicity, calcium gluconate is the antidote as it helps reverse the effects. Positioning the client supine (Choice A) may not directly address magnesium sulfate toxicity. Administering dextrose 5% (Choice B) is not the correct intervention for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Methylergonovine IM (Choice D) is used to manage postpartum hemorrhage, not magnesium sulfate toxicity.

2. A client has a stool culture positive for C. difficile. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Place the client in a negative pressure room
• B. Use alcohol-based hand rub after providing care
• C. Wear a face shield before entering the room
• D. Place the client in a private room

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When caring for a client with a C. difficile infection, it is essential to isolate them in a private room to prevent the spread of spores through contact with surfaces. Placing the client in a negative pressure room (Choice A) is not necessary for C. difficile. Using alcohol-based hand rub (Choice B) and wearing a face shield (Choice C) are important infection control measures but are not specific to the isolation requirements for C. difficile.

3. A nurse is assessing a client with osteoporosis who is experiencing severe pain. The client's respiratory rate is 14/min. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer first?

• A. Promethazine
• B. Hydromorphone
• C. Ketorolac
• D. Amitriptyline

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hydromorphone. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic commonly used to manage severe pain effectively. In this case, the client's stable respiratory rate of 14/min indicates that it is safe to administer an opioid for pain relief. Promethazine (choice A) is an antiemetic and antihistamine, not the first choice for severe pain management. Ketorolac (choice C) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that may not be potent enough for severe pain relief associated with osteoporosis. Amitriptyline (choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant, not typically used as a first-line medication for severe pain.

4. A client who was incarcerated for theft is addressing the group in a County Jail health clinic. Which of the following is an example of reaction formation?

• A. I steal things because it’s the only way I can keep my mind off my bad marriage
• B. I can’t believe I was accused of something I didn’t do
• C. I don’t want to talk about my feelings right now; we will talk more next time
• D. I think that people should earn money honestly, even though I stole

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because reaction formation occurs when a person expresses the opposite of what they feel. In this case, the client is advocating for honesty, despite their own history of theft. Choice A discusses stealing to distract from a bad marriage, which does not involve expressing the opposite of one's feelings. Choice B focuses on denial, not reaction formation. Choice C involves delaying emotional discussion, which is not related to expressing the opposite of one's true feelings.

5. A client with heart failure who presents with dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, and frothy sputum should receive which dietary recommendation?

• A. Decrease protein intake.
• B. Reduce sodium intake.
• C. Increase fluid intake.
• D. Decrease calcium intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to reduce sodium intake. In heart failure, excess sodium can lead to fluid retention, exacerbating symptoms like dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, and frothy sputum. Therefore, reducing sodium intake is crucial in managing heart failure. Decreasing protein intake is not typically recommended in heart failure management. Increasing fluid intake would worsen the condition by further contributing to fluid overload. Decreasing calcium intake is not directly related to managing heart failure symptoms such as dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, and frothy sputum.

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