Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is educating a client about the use of montelukast. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It is used for acute asthma attacks
• B. It is taken once daily in the evening
• C. It should be taken with food
• D. It has no side effects

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist that is typically taken once daily in the evening for asthma management. Choice A is incorrect as montelukast is not used for acute asthma attacks but rather for the prevention of asthma symptoms. Choice C is also incorrect because montelukast can be taken with or without food. Choice D is misleading as all medications, including montelukast, have potential side effects.

2. During a change-of-shift assessment, a nurse is evaluating four clients. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider first?

• A. A client with cystic fibrosis who has a productive cough and reports thirst
• B. A client with gastroenteritis who is lethargic and confused
• C. A client with diabetes mellitus whose blood glucose is 185 mg/dL
• D. A client with sickle cell anemia who reports pain 15 minutes after receiving analgesics

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lethargy and confusion in a client with gastroenteritis are concerning findings that may indicate severe dehydration or electrolyte imbalance, requiring immediate intervention. While the other options are important, they do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to the altered mental status in a client with gastroenteritis.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for potential complications after surgery. Which of the following should the healthcare professional monitor for?

• A. Decreased urine output
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Improved mobility
• D. Normal temperature

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Decreased urine output can indicate renal complications or dehydration, which are common post-surgical complications. Monitoring urine output is crucial for detecting early signs of kidney dysfunction or fluid imbalances. Increased appetite, improved mobility, and normal temperature are not typical signs of immediate post-surgical complications and would not be the priority for monitoring in this case.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin 500 mg in 50 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 15 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the nurse set the manual IV infusion to deliver?

• A. 30 gtt/min
• B. 32 gtt/min
• C. 33 gtt/min
• D. 35 gtt/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Calculation: 10 gtt/mL × 50 mL ÷ 15 min = 33.33, rounded to 33 gtt/min. This ensures proper delivery of the medication over the prescribed time. Choice A is incorrect because it does not factor in the precise calculation based on the given data. Choice B is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate rate of infusion required. Choice D is incorrect as it does not align with the correct calculation based on the drop factor and infusion parameters provided in the question.

5. A client with heart failure who presents with dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, and frothy sputum should receive which dietary recommendation?

• A. Decrease protein intake.
• B. Reduce sodium intake.
• C. Increase fluid intake.
• D. Decrease calcium intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to reduce sodium intake. In heart failure, excess sodium can lead to fluid retention, exacerbating symptoms like dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, and frothy sputum. Therefore, reducing sodium intake is crucial in managing heart failure. Decreasing protein intake is not typically recommended in heart failure management. Increasing fluid intake would worsen the condition by further contributing to fluid overload. Decreasing calcium intake is not directly related to managing heart failure symptoms such as dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, and frothy sputum.

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