Nursing Elites

1. A client has been prescribed raloxiphene. As the nurse, you know that raloxiphene is used to treat:

• A. Migraines
• B. Hypertension
• C. Osteoporosis
• D. Heart disease

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Raloxiphene (Evista) is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used primarily to prevent and treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. It helps to maintain bone density and reduce the risk of fractures by mimicking the effects of estrogen on bone tissue. It is not indicated for the treatment of migraines, hypertension, or heart disease. Therefore, the correct answer is osteoporosis (Choice C). Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as raloxiphene is not used to treat migraines, hypertension, or heart disease.

2. A healthcare provider is providing education on the use of clozapine. Which of the following should be included?

• A. Monitor for agranulocytosis
• B. It is a first-line treatment
• C. It can cause significant weight loss
• D. It has no risk for metabolic syndrome

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A nurse should include monitoring for agranulocytosis when educating a patient about clozapine. Clozapine is known to cause agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening decrease in white blood cells. This adverse effect requires close monitoring to detect it early. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because clozapine is not a first-line treatment for most conditions, it is more commonly associated with weight gain rather than weight loss, and it is known to have a risk for metabolic syndrome.

3. A client is receiving IV moderate sedation with midazolam and has a respiratory rate of 9/min. What should the nurse do?

• A. Place the client in a prone position
• B. Implement positive pressure ventilation
• C. Perform nasopharyngeal suctioning
• D. Administer flumazenil

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer flumazenil. Flumazenil is the reversal agent for midazolam, a benzodiazepine, and should be administered to counteract respiratory depression. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) could further compromise their breathing. Implementing positive pressure ventilation (choice B) is not indicated as the first step when dealing with respiratory depression due to sedation. Performing nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not appropriate in this situation where the client is experiencing respiratory depression due to medication sedation.

4. A charge nurse is discussing HIPAA with a newly licensed nurse. Which action should the charge nurse include in the teaching as an example of a HIPAA violation?

• A. Faxing a patient’s discharge summary to the pharmacy.
• B. Emailing the patient’s positive hepatitis results from an unencrypted server.
• C. Discussing the patient’s care plan during bedside rounds.
• D. Placing the patient’s chart in a secure location at the nurse’s station.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Emailing patient information from an unencrypted server violates HIPAA because it exposes sensitive health information to potential breaches. Choice A is not a violation as long as the fax is sent to the correct recipient. Choice C is not a violation if the discussion is done discreetly and within an appropriate setting. Choice D is a recommended practice to ensure patient information is kept secure.

5. A client with lactose intolerance, who has eliminated dairy products from the diet, should increase consumption of which of the following foods?

• A. Spinach
• B. Peanut butter
• C. Ground beef
• D. Carrots

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spinach is the correct answer because it is a good source of calcium, which is important for clients with lactose intolerance who are not consuming dairy products. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots do not provide as much calcium as spinach and are not the best choices for meeting the calcium needs of clients with lactose intolerance.

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