a nurse is preparing to administer tpn with added fat supplements to a client who has malnutrition which of the following actions should the nurse tak
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A

1. A nurse is preparing to administer TPN with added fat supplements to a client who has malnutrition. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer TPN with fat supplements is to check for an allergy to eggs. The lipid emulsion in TPN often contains egg phospholipids, so screening for egg allergies is crucial to prevent any adverse reactions. Option A is incorrect because TPN should not be piggybacked with 0.9% sodium chloride to avoid any interactions or dilution of the TPN solution. Option C is incorrect as discussing the TPN solution with the client is not the priority when preparing to administer it. Option D is incorrect as monitoring for hypoglycemia, although important in TPN administration, is not specifically related to the addition of fat supplements.

2. A nurse is observing bonding between the client and her newborn. Which of the following actions by the client requires the nurse to intervene?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because viewing the newborn’s actions as uncooperative indicates a negative interaction with the newborn and suggests impaired bonding, which requires intervention. Choices A, B, and C are not indicative of impaired bonding. Holding the newborn in an en face position is a positive way to bond with the baby. Asking the father to change the diaper shows involvement of both parents in caring for the newborn, which is beneficial for bonding. Requesting the nurse to take the newborn to the nursery so the mother can rest is a normal request and does not necessarily indicate impaired bonding.

3. While receiving a change of shift report on a group of clients, which patient should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should assess the client with a fractured femur and sharp chest pain first. Sharp chest pain in this client may indicate a pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening condition requiring immediate attention. The other options describe important patient conditions but do not pose an immediate threat to life like a potential pulmonary embolism does.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Use of accessory muscles.' Clients with COPD often experience airway obstruction, leading to the use of accessory muscles to breathe. This compensatory mechanism helps them overcome the increased work of breathing. Choice A, 'Decreased respiratory rate,' is incorrect because clients with COPD typically have an increased respiratory rate due to the need for more effort to breathe. Choice C, 'Improved lung sounds,' is incorrect because COPD is characterized by wheezes, crackles, and diminished breath sounds. Choice D, 'Increased energy levels,' is incorrect because clients with COPD often experience fatigue due to the increased work of breathing and impaired gas exchange.

5. A nurse is teaching a client with mild persistent asthma who has been prescribed montelukast. Which statement by the nurse is appropriate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'This medication helps decrease swelling and mucus production.' Montelukast is used for long-term asthma management as it helps reduce inflammation and mucus production in the airways. It is not appropriate for acute asthma attacks. Choice A is incorrect because montelukast is not a rescue medication for acute attacks. Choice B is incorrect because montelukast is not specifically taken before exercise. Choice C is incorrect because montelukast is usually taken regularly, not just for a short duration.

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