Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is providing education on the use of atorvastatin. Which of the following should be included?

• A. Monitor for liver function
• B. It can cause muscle pain
• C. It is safe to take during pregnancy
• D. Both A and B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Atorvastatin requires monitoring for liver function due to its potential to cause liver abnormalities. It can also lead to muscle pain or weakness, a condition known as myopathy. Choice C is incorrect as atorvastatin is contraindicated during pregnancy due to potential harm to the fetus, making choices A and B the correct options to include in patient education.

2. A nurse is preparing to teach a client with chronic renal failure. Which dietary instruction is most appropriate?

• A. Increase calcium intake
• B. Increase potassium intake
• C. Increase protein intake
• D. Restrict protein intake

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to restrict protein intake for a client with chronic renal failure. In renal failure, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products. Excessive protein intake can lead to the accumulation of waste products, increasing the workload on the kidneys. Therefore, restricting protein intake is essential to prevent further kidney damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Increasing calcium intake is not specifically indicated for chronic renal failure. Increasing potassium intake can be dangerous in renal failure as impaired kidneys may not be able to excrete excess potassium. Increasing protein intake is contraindicated in chronic renal failure as it can worsen kidney function and increase the accumulation of waste products.

3. A postpartum complication a client is at risk for is deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following factors is strongly associated with this postpartum complication?

• A. Cesarean birth
• B. Vaginal birth
• C. Anemia
• D. Multiparity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cesarean birth. Cesarean birth doubles the risk for deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) due to immobility and vascular changes associated with surgery. Other risk factors for DVT include smoking, obesity, and a history of thromboembolism. Vaginal birth, anemia, and multiparity are not strongly associated with an increased risk of deep-vein thrombosis postpartum. It is important to educate clients undergoing cesarean birth about the increased risk of DVT and measures to prevent it, such as early ambulation and the use of compression stockings.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic renal failure. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Encourage increased fluid intake
• B. Restrict protein intake to the RDA
• C. Increase dietary potassium
• D. Encourage foods high in sodium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the plan of care for a client with chronic renal failure is to restrict protein intake to the RDA. This is important because limiting protein helps reduce the buildup of waste products that the kidneys are unable to efficiently excrete. Encouraging increased fluid intake (choice A) may further burden the kidneys, increasing the risk of fluid overload. Increasing dietary potassium (choice C) is not recommended in chronic renal failure as impaired kidneys have difficulty regulating potassium levels. Encouraging foods high in sodium (choice D) is also not appropriate as excessive sodium intake can lead to fluid retention and hypertension, which are detrimental in renal failure.

5. A client with a closed head injury has their eyes open when pressure is applied to the nail beds, and they exhibit adduction of the arms with flexion of the elbows and wrists. The client also moans with stimulation. What is the client's Glasgow Coma Score?

• A. 4
• B. 7 (comatose)
• C. 9
• D. 10

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's Glasgow Coma Score is 7. This is calculated by assigning 2 points for eye-opening to pain, 2 points for incomprehensible sounds, and 3 points for flexion posturing. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A (4) would be the score if the client displayed decerebrate posturing instead of flexion posturing. Choice C (9) would be the score if the client exhibited eye-opening to speech, confused speech, and decorticate posturing. Choice D (10) would be the score if the client showed eye-opening spontaneously, oriented speech, and obeyed commands, which is not the case here.

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