a client is prescribed warfarin for anticoagulation which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN

1. A client is prescribed warfarin for anticoagulation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT and INR. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that affects the clotting mechanism by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. The PT (Prothrombin Time) and INR (International Normalized Ratio) are specific laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. These values help healthcare providers adjust the warfarin dosage to maintain the desired level of anticoagulation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blood glucose levels, complete blood count (CBC), and platelet count are not directly monitored to assess the effects of warfarin therapy.

2. A client with hepatic encephalopathy is being cared for by a nurse. Which food selection indicates the client understands dietary teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For clients with hepatic encephalopathy, foods high in protein like cottage cheese and tuna should be avoided. Plant-based protein sources like beans are recommended due to their lower ammonia production during digestion. Therefore, the correct choice is B. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they include high-protein or high-sodium foods that can worsen the condition of hepatic encephalopathy.

3. A nurse is reviewing discharge instructions with the parents of a newborn. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Leaving the baby's diaper off to prevent diaper rash is not recommended because it increases the risk of infection. Proper diaper hygiene and frequent diaper changes are more effective in preventing diaper rash. Choices A, B, and C are correct as placing the baby on its back to sleep, giving the baby a pacifier at bedtime, and keeping the baby's crib free of blankets and toys are appropriate measures to ensure the newborn's safety and reduce the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS).

4. A client with a permanent spinal cord injury is scheduled for discharge. Which of the following client statements indicates that the client is coping effectively?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer. This statement demonstrates effective coping as the client is showing acceptance of their disability and planning for the future with realistic goals. Choice B reflects denial of the permanent disability by stating that they will only be in a wheelchair temporarily. Choice C shows distress and a lack of acceptance by questioning why the injury happened and why they are not improving. Choice D indicates feelings of hopelessness and being a burden, which are not signs of effective coping.

5. A nurse is planning to discharge a client who has quadriplegia to his home. The nurse suggests that the family might need respite care services. When a family member asks how respite care can help, which response should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Respite care is designed to give primary caregivers temporary relief from the responsibilities of care, allowing them to take a break. Choice A is incorrect because respite care is not primarily focused on providing medical support to the client. Choice B is incorrect as respite care does not specifically assist with financial planning for the client's needs. Choice C is incorrect as respite care does not provide long-term housing, but rather short-term relief for caregivers.

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