a client is prescribed warfarin for anticoagulation which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor a client is prescribed warfarin for anticoagulation which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN

1. A client is prescribed warfarin for anticoagulation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT and INR. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that affects the clotting mechanism by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. The PT (Prothrombin Time) and INR (International Normalized Ratio) are specific laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. These values help healthcare providers adjust the warfarin dosage to maintain the desired level of anticoagulation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blood glucose levels, complete blood count (CBC), and platelet count are not directly monitored to assess the effects of warfarin therapy.

2. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a dose of clindamycin. Which of the following should the provider assess first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When preparing to administer clindamycin, assessing the patient's allergy history is crucial as clindamycin can cause severe allergic reactions. This assessment helps identify any potential risks related to allergies and enables the healthcare provider to take necessary precautions. Vital signs, renal function, and liver function are also important assessments before administering medications, but in this case, checking for any history of allergies takes priority due to the risk of severe allergic reactions associated with clindamycin.

3. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who is at risk for cardiovascular disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oatmeal is high in fiber, which helps lower cholesterol levels, making it a heart-healthy food option for clients at risk for cardiovascular disease. Fried chicken, bacon, and whole milk are high in saturated fats and cholesterol, which can increase the risk of heart disease and should be limited in the diet of individuals at risk for cardiovascular issues.

4. What skills are required for an LPN to successfully manage care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To successfully manage care as an LPN, one must possess the ability to organize and prioritize tasks. This skill is crucial in ensuring efficient and effective care delivery, as it helps in planning, coordinating, and addressing patient needs in a timely manner. While the other choices may also be important in certain contexts, the key skill required for care management is the ability to organize and prioritize tasks. Working weekends and off shifts (Choice B) may be part of the job requirement but is not a skill. Developing a comprehensive care plan (Choice C) is important but falls more under the domain of care planning rather than day-to-day care management. Having a close relationship with the supervising RN (Choice D) is beneficial for collaboration but is not a standalone skill required for managing care.

5. During a Leopold maneuver, a healthcare professional determines that the fetus is in an RSA position. Which fetal presentation should be documented in the client's medical record?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Breech." The RSA position indicates that the fetus is in a breech presentation. In a breech presentation, the buttocks or feet are positioned to be delivered first, which can impact the mode of delivery and require close monitoring during labor and birth. Choice A (Vertex) refers to the head-first presentation, which is considered the normal and most common presentation for birth. Choice B (Shoulder) does not represent a specific fetal presentation. Choice D (Mentum) refers to the chin presentation, which is also not relevant in this scenario.

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