Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed warfarin for anticoagulation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. PT and INR
• B. Blood glucose levels
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT and INR. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that affects the clotting mechanism by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. The PT (Prothrombin Time) and INR (International Normalized Ratio) are specific laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. These values help healthcare providers adjust the warfarin dosage to maintain the desired level of anticoagulation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blood glucose levels, complete blood count (CBC), and platelet count are not directly monitored to assess the effects of warfarin therapy.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for an antidepressant. The client reports experiencing dry mouth. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give the client?

• A. Decrease fluid intake.
• B. Chew sugarless gum.
• C. Avoid using mouthwash.
• D. Increase intake of dairy products.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to chew sugarless gum. Chewing sugarless gum can help alleviate dry mouth by stimulating saliva production, which is a common side effect of many antidepressants. Decreasing fluid intake (choice A) is not recommended as it can worsen dry mouth. Avoiding mouthwash (choice C) is not as effective as chewing gum in stimulating saliva. Increasing intake of dairy products (choice D) is not directly related to managing dry mouth caused by antidepressants.

3. A client has been prescribed amlodipine for hypertension. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Dizziness
• C. Rash
• D. Headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Dizziness.' Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension, can cause dizziness due to its blood pressure-lowering effects. It is crucial for clients to report dizziness to their healthcare provider as it may indicate hypotension. Dry cough (choice A) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, rash (choice C) may be seen in allergic reactions, and headache (choice D) is a less common side effect of amlodipine.

4. A nurse is preparing to teach a client about the management of hypoglycemia. Which sign should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for?

• A. Diaphoresis
• B. Polyuria
• C. Abdominal pain
• D. Thirst

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis, which refers to excessive sweating, is a classic symptom of hypoglycemia. Instructing the client to monitor for diaphoresis is crucial as it can help them recognize and address hypoglycemic events promptly. Polyuria (excessive urination), abdominal pain, and thirst are not typical signs of hypoglycemia. Polyuria is more commonly associated with conditions like diabetes mellitus, while abdominal pain and thirst are not specific indicators of low blood sugar levels.

5. The nurse instructs the patient about incentive spirometry as part of preoperative teaching. Which phase of the nursing process does this illustrate?

• A. Assessment
• B. Planning
• C. Implementation
• D. Evaluation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Instructing a patient about incentive spirometry falls under the implementation phase of the nursing process. During this phase, nursing interventions are put into action. Assessment (choice A) involves collecting data about the patient's condition, planning (choice B) involves setting goals and creating a care plan, and evaluation (choice D) involves assessing the outcomes of nursing interventions. Therefore, the correct answer is C, as it reflects the active teaching and intervention part of the process.

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