ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A nurse is preparing to assist a provider with the insertion of a nontunneled percutaneous central venous catheter into a client’s subclavian vein. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Position the client in a high-Fowler’s position
- B. Place the client in Trendelenburg position
- C. Place a rolled towel under the client’s neck
- D. Assist the client into a side-lying position
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when assisting with the insertion of a nontunneled percutaneous central venous catheter into the subclavian vein is to place the client in Trendelenburg position. This position helps distend the veins and reduces the risk of air embolism during the insertion procedure. Option A, positioning the client in a high-Fowler’s position, would not be appropriate as it does not facilitate venous distention. Option C, placing a rolled towel under the client’s neck, is not directly related to the procedure and does not serve a specific purpose in this context. Option D, assisting the client into a side-lying position, is also not the correct choice as Trendelenburg position is preferred for this procedure to aid in vein distention.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who reports a possible exposure to HIV. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an early manifestation of HIV infection?
- A. Stomatitis
- B. Fatigue
- C. Wasting syndrome
- D. Lipodystrophy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fatigue. A client with early HIV infection can be asymptomatic or experience symptoms like viral infections, such as fever, rash, and fatigue. Fatigue is a common early manifestation of HIV infection due to the body's immune response. Stomatitis (choice A) is more commonly associated with oral health issues or infections. Wasting syndrome (choice C) and lipodystrophy (choice D) are more advanced manifestations seen in later stages of HIV infection, characterized by severe weight loss and changes in body fat distribution, respectively.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer TPN with added fat supplements to a client who has malnutrition. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer the TPN solution separately from 0.9% sodium chloride
- B. Check for an allergy to eggs
- C. Discuss the TPN solution with the client
- D. Monitor for hypoglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer TPN with fat supplements is to check for an allergy to eggs. The lipid emulsion in TPN often contains egg phospholipids, so screening for egg allergies is crucial to prevent any adverse reactions. Option A is incorrect because TPN should not be piggybacked with 0.9% sodium chloride to avoid any interactions or dilution of the TPN solution. Option C is incorrect as discussing the TPN solution with the client is not the priority when preparing to administer it. Option D is incorrect as monitoring for hypoglycemia, although important in TPN administration, is not specifically related to the addition of fat supplements.
4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory data of a client with diabetes mellitus. Which of the following laboratory tests is an indicator of long-term disease management?
- A. Postprandial blood glucose
- B. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c)
- C. Glucose tolerance test
- D. Fasting blood glucose
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c). The glycosylated hemoglobin test measures average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months, providing an indication of long-term glycemic control in clients with diabetes. Choice A, postprandial blood glucose, reflects blood sugar levels after a meal and does not provide a long-term view. Choice C, glucose tolerance test, evaluates the body's ability to process sugar but does not offer a continuous assessment like the HbA1c test. Choice D, fasting blood glucose, measures blood sugar levels after a period of fasting, which is more indicative of immediate glycemic status rather than long-term management.
5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which finding indicates the need for hemodialysis?
- A. BUN 14 mg/dL
- B. Serum potassium 4.2 mEq/L
- C. Serum creatinine 5 mg/dL
- D. Serum calcium 9 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum creatinine level of 5 mg/dL is significantly elevated and indicates the need for hemodialysis to help filter waste products from the blood. Elevated creatinine levels suggest impaired kidney function and the inability to effectively filter waste from the body. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not indicate the need for immediate hemodialysis in a client with chronic kidney disease.
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