Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to assist a provider with the insertion of a nontunneled percutaneous central venous catheter into a client’s subclavian vein. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Position the client in a high-Fowler’s position
• B. Place the client in Trendelenburg position
• C. Place a rolled towel under the client’s neck
• D. Assist the client into a side-lying position

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when assisting with the insertion of a nontunneled percutaneous central venous catheter into the subclavian vein is to place the client in Trendelenburg position. This position helps distend the veins and reduces the risk of air embolism during the insertion procedure. Option A, positioning the client in a high-Fowler’s position, would not be appropriate as it does not facilitate venous distention. Option C, placing a rolled towel under the client’s neck, is not directly related to the procedure and does not serve a specific purpose in this context. Option D, assisting the client into a side-lying position, is also not the correct choice as Trendelenburg position is preferred for this procedure to aid in vein distention.

2. A client has been prescribed amlodipine for hypertension. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Dizziness
• C. Rash
• D. Headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Dizziness.' Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension, can cause dizziness due to its blood pressure-lowering effects. It is crucial for clients to report dizziness to their healthcare provider as it may indicate hypotension. Dry cough (choice A) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, rash (choice C) may be seen in allergic reactions, and headache (choice D) is a less common side effect of amlodipine.

3. When designing a program for young adults regarding safe sexual practices, which strategy might reach the greatest number in the target group?

• A. Web-based applications
• B. Print-based media such as newspapers
• C. Television advertisements
• D. Brochures in kiosks in malls

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Web-based applications are the most effective strategy for reaching young adults in the target group regarding safe sexual practices. Young adults today are highly engaged with mobile technology and the internet, making web-based applications the most accessible and convenient method to disseminate information. Print-based media like newspapers may not have the same reach and engagement among young adults. Television advertisements might reach a broader audience, but they may not be as targeted to the specific demographic of young adults. Brochures in kiosks in malls are less likely to reach a large number of young adults compared to web-based applications, which can be accessed anytime and anywhere through mobile devices.

4. A nurse is reviewing a client's medical record and notes that the client is taking tamoxifen. The nurse should identify that tamoxifen is used to treat which of the following conditions?

• A. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
• B. Endometriosis
• C. Breast cancer
• D. Polycystic ovary syndrome

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tamoxifen is an anti-estrogen medication primarily used to treat hormone receptor-positive breast cancer. It works by blocking estrogen receptors in breast tissue, slowing the growth of tumors that require estrogen to grow. Choice A, Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, is incorrect because tamoxifen is not indicated for its treatment. Choice B, Endometriosis, is incorrect as tamoxifen is not used for this condition. Choice D, Polycystic ovary syndrome, is also incorrect since tamoxifen is not a treatment for this syndrome.

5. A client receiving oxytocin IV for labor augmentation is experiencing contractions every 45 seconds. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion
• B. Increase the oxytocin infusion
• C. Decrease the oxytocin infusion
• D. Maintain the oxytocin infusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. Contractions occurring every 45 seconds indicate uterine hyperstimulation, which can pose risks to both the client and the fetus. By stopping the oxytocin infusion, the nurse can help prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing, decreasing, or maintaining the oxytocin infusion can exacerbate the uterine hyperstimulation and increase the risks associated with it.

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