Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of losartan. Which of the following should the nurse assess first?

• A. Blood pressure
• B. Heart rate
• C. Serum potassium
• D. Liver function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess blood pressure first. Losartan is an angiotensin receptor blocker used to lower blood pressure. Assessing the patient's blood pressure before administering losartan is crucial to ensure it is not already too low, which could lead to hypotension. Assessing heart rate (choice B) is important but not the priority when administering losartan. Serum potassium levels (choice C) and liver function (choice D) are also important assessments, but they are not the primary concern before administering losartan.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a chest tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to ensure proper functioning of the chest tube?

• A. Clamp the chest tube intermittently.
• B. Keep the drainage system below chest level.
• C. Empty the drainage chamber every 4 hours.
• D. Apply sterile gauze around the insertion site daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To ensure proper functioning of a chest tube, the nurse should keep the drainage system below chest level. This position allows for proper drainage by gravity and prevents backflow into the pleural space. Clamping the chest tube intermittently can lead to a buildup of pressure and should be avoided. Emptying the drainage chamber every 4 hours is important but not directly related to maintaining the chest tube's function. Applying sterile gauze around the insertion site daily is essential for infection prevention but does not specifically ensure the proper functioning of the chest tube.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of warfarin. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Verify INR levels
• B. Administer with food
• C. Monitor blood glucose levels
• D. Assess liver function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When administering warfarin, it is crucial to verify the patient's INR levels. INR monitoring is essential to ensure that the patient is receiving the correct dose of warfarin for their condition and to minimize the risk of bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because administering warfarin with food, monitoring blood glucose levels, and assessing liver function are not directly related to the safe administration and monitoring of warfarin therapy.

4. A nurse is preparing to assist a provider with the insertion of a nontunneled percutaneous central venous catheter into a client’s subclavian vein. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Position the client in a high-Fowler’s position
• B. Place the client in Trendelenburg position
• C. Place a rolled towel under the client’s neck
• D. Assist the client into a side-lying position

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when assisting with the insertion of a nontunneled percutaneous central venous catheter into the subclavian vein is to place the client in Trendelenburg position. This position helps distend the veins and reduces the risk of air embolism during the insertion procedure. Option A, positioning the client in a high-Fowler’s position, would not be appropriate as it does not facilitate venous distention. Option C, placing a rolled towel under the client’s neck, is not directly related to the procedure and does not serve a specific purpose in this context. Option D, assisting the client into a side-lying position, is also not the correct choice as Trendelenburg position is preferred for this procedure to aid in vein distention.

5. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.035
• B. Oliguria, increased urine concentration, and an increase in urine specific gravity greater than 1.030
• C. Polyuria
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria (reduced urine output), increased urine concentration, and a urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 are indicative of dehydration, particularly in clients using diuretics excessively. Choice A is incorrect because a urine specific gravity of 1.035 is high, indicating concentrated urine but not specifically dehydration. Choice C, polyuria, refers to increased urine output and is not consistent with dehydration. Choice D, hypotension, is a sign of fluid volume deficit but is not specific to dehydration as described in the scenario.

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