Nursing Elites

1. A client has been prescribed vasopressin for the treatment of diabetes insipidus. What is the expected pharmacological action of this medication?

• A. To stimulate the pancreas to secrete insulin
• B. To slow the absorption of glucose in the intestine
• C. To increase reabsorption of water in the renal tubules
• D. To increase blood pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: To increase reabsorption of water in the renal tubules. Vasopressin mimics the action of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) by increasing the reabsorption of water in the renal tubules. This leads to decreased urine output, helping to manage symptoms of diabetes insipidus, which is characterized by excessive thirst and urination. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Vasopressin does not stimulate the pancreas to secrete insulin, slow the absorption of glucose in the intestine, or directly increase blood pressure.

2. A nurse is teaching a client with mild persistent asthma about montelukast. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?

• A. I will use this for asthma attacks.
• B. I should take this before exercise.
• C. This medication will decrease swelling and mucus production.
• D. I can stop this medication after 10 days.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist that helps reduce swelling and mucus production in the airways, making it useful for long-term asthma management.

3. A healthcare provider is caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Serum glucose levels
• B. Serum potassium levels
• C. Blood pressure
• D. Both A and B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring serum glucose levels is essential due to the impact TPN can have on glucose metabolism. Additionally, electrolytes like potassium should be monitored as they can be affected by TPN administration. Blood pressure monitoring is not directly related to TPN administration, making choices A and B the correct options to monitor in this scenario.

4. A healthcare professional is teaching a client about reducing the risk of urinary tract infections (UTIs). Which factor increases the risk of UTI?

• A. Wearing underwear with a cotton crotch
• B. Wiping from front to back
• C. Using perfumed toilet paper
• D. Urinating after intercourse

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Using perfumed toilet paper can irritate the urinary tract and increase the risk of UTI, so it should be avoided. Wearing underwear with a cotton crotch (Choice A) is a preventive measure as cotton allows for better air circulation and reduces moisture, lowering the risk of UTIs. Wiping from front to back (Choice B) helps prevent the introduction of bacteria from the anal region to the urinary tract. Urinating after intercourse (Choice D) can help flush out bacteria introduced during sexual activity, thereby reducing the risk of UTIs.

5. A nurse is assessing a client 1 hour after birth and notes a boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Take vital signs
• B. Assess lochia
• C. Massage the fundus
• D. Give oxytocin IV bolus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus suggests uterine atony, which is a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage. The initial intervention in this situation is to massage the fundus. Fundal massage helps the uterus contract, promoting hemostasis and preventing excessive bleeding. Taking vital signs or assessing lochia are important actions but are secondary to addressing uterine atony. Administering oxytocin IV bolus is often done after fundal massage to further enhance uterine contractions.

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