Nursing Elites

1. A client has been prescribed vasopressin for the treatment of diabetes insipidus. What is the expected pharmacological action of this medication?

• A. To stimulate the pancreas to secrete insulin
• B. To slow the absorption of glucose in the intestine
• C. To increase reabsorption of water in the renal tubules
• D. To increase blood pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: To increase reabsorption of water in the renal tubules. Vasopressin mimics the action of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) by increasing the reabsorption of water in the renal tubules. This leads to decreased urine output, helping to manage symptoms of diabetes insipidus, which is characterized by excessive thirst and urination. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Vasopressin does not stimulate the pancreas to secrete insulin, slow the absorption of glucose in the intestine, or directly increase blood pressure.

2. A nurse is assisting with mass casualty triage following an explosion at a local factory. Which of the following clients should the nurse identify as the priority?

• A. A client who has massive head trauma
• B. A client who has full-thickness burns to the face and trunk
• C. A client with indications of hypovolemic shock
• D. A client with an open fracture of the lower extremity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a mass casualty situation, the nurse should prioritize the client with indications of hypovolemic shock. Hypovolemic shock is an immediate life-threatening condition resulting from severe blood loss, which can lead to organ failure and death. Prompt identification and treatment of hypovolemic shock are crucial to prevent further deterioration. While clients with massive head trauma, full-thickness burns, and open fractures require urgent care, hypovolemic shock takes precedence due to its rapid progression to a critical state.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is taking warfarin. The nurse notes that the client has a new prescription for amoxicillin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT). Amoxicillin can potentiate the effects of warfarin, increasing the risk of bleeding. Monitoring the prothrombin time (PT) is crucial in this situation to assess the client's clotting ability. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because amoxicillin's interaction with warfarin does not directly impact serum potassium, serum sodium, or blood glucose levels.

4. A client is at high risk for iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to increase in their diet?

• A. Yogurt
• B. Apples
• C. Raisins
• D. Cheddar cheese

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Raisins. Raisins are a good source of iron, which can help prevent or address iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt (Choice A) and cheddar cheese (Choice D) are not significant sources of iron. While apples (Choice B) are a healthy fruit, they do not contain as much iron as raisins.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has severe dehydration. Which finding indicates effective treatment?

• A. Sunken anterior fontanel
• B. Tenting skin turgor
• C. Flat anterior fontanel
• D. Hyperpnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A flat anterior fontanel indicates effective treatment for dehydration in infants. Dehydration often causes sunken fontanels, so when the anterior fontanel becomes flat, it suggests that rehydration has occurred. Sunken anterior fontanel (Choice A) is a sign of dehydration, not effective treatment. Tenting skin turgor (Choice B) is also a sign of dehydration, indicating poor skin turgor. Hyperpnea (Choice D) is increased depth and rate of breathing and is not directly related to the hydration status of the client.

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