ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A
1. A client receiving IV moderate (conscious) sedation with midazolam has a respiratory rate of 9/min and is not responding to commands. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?
- A. Place the client in a prone position
- B. Implement positive pressure ventilation
- C. Perform nasopharyngeal suctioning
- D. Administer flumazenil
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of respiratory depression and central nervous system depression due to midazolam sedation. Administering flumazenil is the correct action as it is the antidote for midazolam, a benzodiazepine, and can reverse the sedative effects to restore respiratory function. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) may worsen respiratory compromise. Implementing positive pressure ventilation (choice B) is not the first-line intervention for sedation-related respiratory depression. Performing nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not indicated as there are no signs of airway obstruction requiring suctioning.
2. A healthcare professional is teaching a client about the use of methotrexate. Which of the following should be included?
- A. It is a pain reliever
- B. Monitor for signs of infection
- C. It can be taken without food
- D. It is safe to use during pregnancy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for signs of infection.' Methotrexate can suppress the immune system, making the client more susceptible to infections. Educating the client to monitor for signs of infection is crucial for early detection and management. Choice A is incorrect because methotrexate is not a pain reliever; it is commonly used to treat conditions like cancer, rheumatoid arthritis, and psoriasis. Choice C is incorrect because methotrexate is usually recommended to be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect because methotrexate is known to be harmful during pregnancy and should not be used by pregnant individuals as it can cause birth defects.
3. A laboring client received meperidine IV one hour prior to delivery. Which of the following medications should the nurse have available to counteract the effects of this medication on the newborn?
- A. Naloxone
- B. Epinephrine
- C. Atropine
- D. Diazepam
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid analgesic that can cross the placenta and cause respiratory depression in the newborn. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that is administered to reverse the effects of opioids. It is critical to have Naloxone available when opioids are administered during labor, especially close to delivery. Epinephrine is not used to counteract the effects of opioids but rather for managing severe allergic reactions or cardiac arrest. Atropine is used for specific conditions like bradycardia, not to counteract opioid effects. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, seizures, and muscle spasms, not for reversing opioid effects.
4. A nurse is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assign to an assistive personnel (AP)?
- A. Client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and needs guidance with incentive spirometry
- B. Client who has awoken following a bronchoscopy and requests a drink
- C. Client who had a myocardial infarction 3 days ago and reports chest discomfort
- D. Client who had a cerebrovascular accident 2 days ago and needs help toileting
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the client who had a cerebrovascular accident 2 days ago and needs help toileting is stable and the task is appropriate for delegation to an assistive personnel (AP). Choices A, B, and C involve clients with more complex care needs that require the expertise of a nurse. Choice A involves providing guidance with incentive spirometry, which requires specialized knowledge and assessment skills. Choice B involves a client who has just undergone a bronchoscopy, so close monitoring is essential to assess for any complications. Choice C involves a client who had a myocardial infarction 3 days ago and is reporting chest discomfort, which could indicate a potential cardiac issue requiring immediate nursing assessment and intervention.
5. A provider has written a do not resuscitate (DNR) order for a client who is comatose and does not have advance directives. A member of the client’s family says, 'I wonder when the doctor will tell us what’s going on.' Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Request that the provider provide more information to the family.
- B. Refer the family to a support group for grief counseling.
- C. Offer to answer questions that family members have.
- D. Ask the family what the provider has discussed with them.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to ask the family what the provider has discussed with them. This allows the nurse to clarify any misunderstandings and ensures that the family is fully informed before providing further information. Option A is not the best choice because it assumes the need for more information without first understanding what has already been communicated. Option B is premature as the family may not be ready for grief counseling at this stage. Option C, although a good general practice, is not the most appropriate immediate action in this situation where clarifying existing information is crucial.
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