Nursing Elites

1. A client receiving IV moderate (conscious) sedation with midazolam has a respiratory rate of 9/min and is not responding to commands. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Place the client in a prone position
• B. Implement positive pressure ventilation
• C. Perform nasopharyngeal suctioning
• D. Administer flumazenil

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of respiratory depression and central nervous system depression due to midazolam sedation. Administering flumazenil is the correct action as it is the antidote for midazolam, a benzodiazepine, and can reverse the sedative effects to restore respiratory function. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) may worsen respiratory compromise. Implementing positive pressure ventilation (choice B) is not the first-line intervention for sedation-related respiratory depression. Performing nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not indicated as there are no signs of airway obstruction requiring suctioning.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 8 hours postpartum following a vaginal birth. The client reports passing large clots and heavy bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Massage the fundus
• B. Administer methylergonovine
• C. Increase the IV fluid rate
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Heavy bleeding and the passage of large clots after childbirth can indicate uterine atony. The nurse should first attempt to massage the fundus to stimulate uterine contractions and control the bleeding. Massaging the fundus helps the uterus to contract and may help prevent further bleeding. Administering methylergonovine (Choice B) is not the initial intervention for uterine atony. Increasing the IV fluid rate (Choice C) may not address the underlying cause of the bleeding. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done after attempting initial interventions like fundal massage.

3. A home care nurse is following up with a postpartum client. Which of the following is a risk factor that places this client at risk for postpartum depression?

• A. History of anxiety
• B. Socioeconomic status
• C. Hormonal changes with a rapid decline in estrogen and progesterone
• D. Support from family members

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Postpartum depression can be triggered by various factors, but one of the strongest predictors is a rapid drop in estrogen and progesterone levels following childbirth. These hormonal changes can affect mood regulation, making some women more vulnerable to depression during the postpartum period. Choices A, B, and D are not direct risk factors associated with postpartum depression. While a history of anxiety may contribute, it is not as directly linked to the hormonal changes that occur postpartum. Socioeconomic status and support from family members may influence the overall well-being of the mother but are not specific risk factors for postpartum depression.

4. A nurse is teaching a group of assistive personnel (AP) about the expected integumentary changes in older adults. Which should the nurse include?

• A. Increase in elasticity
• B. Decrease in pigmentation
• C. Decrease in elasticity
• D. Increase in moisture levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decrease in elasticity.' As individuals age, they typically experience a decrease in skin elasticity, leading to sagging skin and increased wrinkles. This change in elasticity can contribute to various skin-related issues such as pressure ulcers and delayed wound healing. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because older adults do not experience an increase in elasticity or moisture levels, and while there may be changes in pigmentation, the primary change related to aging in the integumentary system is a decrease in elasticity.

5. A client with heart failure is receiving discharge teaching. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will weigh myself once a week.
• B. I will take my diuretic medication in the evening.
• C. I will limit my fluid intake to 3 liters per day.
• D. I will call my doctor if I notice swelling in my feet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Swelling in the feet can indicate worsening heart failure due to fluid retention, and clients should report this to their healthcare provider immediately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because weighing once a week may not provide timely information on fluid retention, timing of diuretic medication is usually advised in the morning to prevent nocturia, and limiting fluid intake to 3 liters per day may not be appropriate for all clients with heart failure.

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