Nursing Elites

1. A client receiving IV moderate (conscious) sedation with midazolam has a respiratory rate of 9/min and is not responding to commands. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Place the client in a prone position
• B. Implement positive pressure ventilation
• C. Perform nasopharyngeal suctioning
• D. Administer flumazenil

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of respiratory depression and central nervous system depression due to midazolam sedation. Administering flumazenil is the correct action as it is the antidote for midazolam, a benzodiazepine, and can reverse the sedative effects to restore respiratory function. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) may worsen respiratory compromise. Implementing positive pressure ventilation (choice B) is not the first-line intervention for sedation-related respiratory depression. Performing nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not indicated as there are no signs of airway obstruction requiring suctioning.

2. A hospice nurse is providing teaching to a patient who has a new diagnosis of a terminal illness and her family. Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Hospice care will help provide rehabilitation for the patient.
• B. Hospice care focuses on extending life by any means necessary.
• C. Hospice care will help the patient transition to nursing care.
• D. Hospice care continues to help families with grief after a death occurs.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement that the nurse should include in the teaching is option D: 'Hospice care continues to help families with grief after a death occurs.' Hospice care not only focuses on providing comfort care for terminal patients but also offers bereavement support to families after the patient's death. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Option A is incorrect because hospice care does not provide rehabilitation for the patient; its focus is on comfort and quality of life. Option B is incorrect because hospice care does not aim to extend life but rather to provide quality end-of-life care. Option C is incorrect because hospice care does not transition patients to nursing care; it provides care focused on comfort and symptom management in the patient's preferred setting.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is being educated by a nurse about managing their condition. Which of the following statements shows an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will need to take an iron supplement.
• B. I will consume foods high in phosphorus.
• C. I will reduce my intake of carbohydrates.
• D. I will monitor my blood glucose level daily.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with chronic kidney disease often develop anemia due to reduced erythropoietin production, leading to decreased red blood cell production. Iron supplementation is frequently required to enhance red blood cell production. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in chronic kidney disease, there is a need to restrict phosphorus intake, control carbohydrate intake for blood sugar management, and monitor electrolytes and fluid balance rather than blood glucose levels.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer IV furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for during the infusion?

• A. Increased urinary output
• B. Ototoxicity
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, particularly potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia, as low potassium levels can lead to various complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choice A, increased urinary output, is an expected effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not a side effect needing monitoring. Ototoxicity (Choice B) is a potential adverse effect of other medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics, not furosemide. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a common side effect associated with furosemide administration.

5. A client has developed a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Prepare the client for a thoracentesis
• C. Elevate the client’s lower extremities
• D. Administer anticoagulant therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a client with a pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism can lead to impaired gas exchange, causing hypoxemia. Administering oxygen helps to maintain adequate oxygenation levels. Thoracentesis is not indicated for a pulmonary embolism, as it is a procedure to remove fluid or air from the pleural space, not a treatment for embolism. Elevating the client's lower extremities is not a priority in the management of a pulmonary embolism. Administering anticoagulant therapy is important in the treatment of pulmonary embolism to prevent further clot formation, but it is not the first intervention. Oxygen administration takes precedence to address the immediate oxygenation needs of the client.

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